Hi, I'd like to know if the following statement is true:
Let \hat{A}, \hat{B} be operators for any two observables A, B. Then \langle \hat{A} \rangle_{\psi} = \langle \hat{B} \rangle_{\psi} \forall \psi implies \hat{A} = \hat{B} .
Here, \langle \hat{A} \rangle_{\psi} =...