Recent content by hokhani

Here, do you also consider the deviation from the mean momentum (which is zero) a criterion of uncertainty?

Right, but there are two opposite momentum values for the particle in the box. So, the momentum uncertainty in the box is within two uncertain momentum values. However, it seems that uncertainty outside the box increases. Doesn't it?

As far as I know about the position -momentum uncertainty if a quantum particle is more confined, we expect its momentum to be more uncertain. However, I think, as a counterexample one may take the particle in a box. Each sin wave function (which is the solution of particle in the box) is always...

Thanks for your answer. If photon is like wave, I expect after turning off the lamp to be able to detect again in it's first-detected place. Isn't it?

Consider a light source, like lamp, that radiates photons in vacuum. Can we detect a particular photon, moving in a specific direction, always at one point or the photon is localised and moves from one point to another? In other words, I would like to know that like free quantum particles...

What causes the phase difference between two non-orthogonal quantum states to increase? Or is any physical interpretation for phase difference between non-orthogonal quantum states?

I meant ##\hat{L}_z e^{im\phi}=m\hbar e^{im\phi}##, in classical view, represents the rotation around the z-axis with angular momentum ##m\hbar##. Since the particle is not localised, again by classical view, we expect the rotation occurs in all circles around the z-axis. Then, at greater ##r##...

Thanks again for your help! To build on what I mentioned in post #6, the case I had in mind was specifically a rotation around the ##z## axis.

For rotation around the z axis ##p## and ##r## are orthogonal, or at least non orthogonal components don't contribute.

Also in quantum, the time evolution of an eigenstate appears as phase coefficient, and it seems that the phase change to be related to the origin of time.

In quantum mechanics phase change, as a coefficient ##e^{i\theta}##, would not change the quantum state. I would like to know whether we have such a concept for classical systems.

Here, it is not ##[x,p_x]## but we have something for example like ##[x,p_y]=0##.

So, for a constant ##L_z=m\hbar## we expect that getting far from the ##z-##axis the linear momentum decreases.

On the contrary, I think the particular case ##l=0## is more understandable from classical view. It describes the particle at rest. However, the quantum particle is not localized at a particular point. We can find it everywhere with the same probability.

Angular momentum as generator of rotation in defined by ##L=r\times p##. However, none of the angular momentum wave functions depends on the ##r##. They only depend on the angles.