Hello guys, suppose we have an eigenvalue problem
\left\{
\begin{array}{ll}
u'' + λu = 0, \quad x \in (0,\pi) \\
u(0)=0 \quad \\
\left( \int_0^\pi \! {(u^+)}^2 \, \mathrm{d}x \right)^{\frac{1}{2}} = \left( \int_0^\pi \! {(u^-)}^4 \, \mathrm{d}x \right)^\frac...