Recent content by Mr confusion

thank you,gnurf. well, i think when internal impedance is the complex conjugate of the external impedance, then power transfer is max.for simple circuits, i can write this as internal resistance=ext resistance. so that is impedance matching... but how is it applied in electronics/mosfets/mesfets?

friends, i have got stuck in MOSFETs which we did today in class. i could not follow how MESFETS work- all i remember and my notes say is that i use a tungsten metal instead of metal oxide as we use in MOSFETS. but i could not detergent the mechanism. can anyone please help me a bit... also...

moepemuk, can you please tell me what are the prerequisites to understand wigner's work?? i want to study and find this myself.

thanks, nunamjar. i will ask my professor what these generators are in my next class to understand the other posts. in classical mech, we have just completed lagrangian formulation.

but that was really surprising! i mean, X will always commute with f(x). that means momentum operator can be anything, not a definitum -ih/2 pi d/dx

thank you, friends. i have more/less understood it. but i think i still have a long way to go-about 50% of the posts basically went over my head. i will try my best to understand all of them- if i get stuck ,it is my earnest request to you all to show me the right way. thanks friends, you...

friends, this may appear a silly question to experts, but still... why/ on what physical reasons am i associationizing -ih/2 pi d/dx with the momentum operator while working in X basis? i mean, ok. in x basis the momentum operator takes the structurtum of the first derivative of the dirac...

peteratcram thank you. well, ok. but can you please confirm me one thing?? in my chemistry course, i learned that spin does not arise due to a spinning electron. it is something inherent. now, when i think this again, i know electron is a particle. and like all particles, can it not spin in...

many thanks, moepemuk. and the complicacy? ok. its also1D. THANKS!

is my question understandable, friends? please tell me, i will place it more clearly then. actually my stock of english words is not much. sorry friends.

moepemuk, although i did not fully understand those things , but can you tell the same thing in a easier way? i understand that we live in 3D , but still when i sit in classroom and solve a problem where an electron is coming from left to a barrier, it is still called an 'electron', ie . a...

thank you , friends. i will remember what you said. but i am still finding it hard to understand how a particle can have an extra spin degree of freedom in one dimension. am i missing something fundamental?

no friend, i do not know what supersymmetry is. my course has just started. but i am not telling that an electron acts as boson. i am just saying why it doesn't do so in one dimension problems where the concept of spin does not arise, -thus there is no spin statistics theorem playing in our minds...

:confused: friends, we know that fermions must be described by antisymmetric and bosons by symmetric wavefunctions. but i was wondering why a particle of certain class behaves like that for ever? ie. say, an electron will never behave like a boson ?? my book says that there is a spin...

on a second thought, what if there was no cavity? i mean, i can still think of photons, can i not? thanks.