Recent content by rubenvb

Thanks for the answer, will check on it tomorrow (too late here now). z is defined to be no greater than 1 in absolute value, so the expression is symmetrical in z and there is no z>1. PS: z is actually \zeta=polarisation)

Hi, I need to plot this function z(B) with B=0...100 for an assignment: (1+z)^{\frac{2}{3}}-(1-z)^{\frac{2}{3}} = B But can't seem to discover how. Mathematica can't calculate the inverse (for rather obvious reasons), and neither can Matlab. A solution in either program is fine. Thanks!

Well, that's what I had in mind in my badly explained example. Why not let the wave-function diffuse when its moving in a GR curved space-time. Why not make the inherently "perfectly smooth" curved spacetime (as I think it is for many simple problems: a smooth curvature without bumps) a bit...

I had the impression it wasn't so easy? I know, and stuff like string theory comes to mind, but I'm trying to look at it the other way around: a general relativistic theory of quantum mechanics, to express it in mildly confusing terminology. What about my example then? How does this fit...

First, I'm not sure where this fits (here or Quantum Mechanics), because it's completely in-between the two... Is there a way to account for the fundamental uncertainty in quantum mechanics through a modification of general relativity? I have very limited experience in Quantum mechanics, and...

Thanks, that looks good. The integrand isn't complete here (waaaay too big to put here).

double integral to single by "magic" substitution Hi, I have a double (actually quadruple, but the other dimensions don't matter here) integral which looks like this: \iint_0^\infty \frac{d^2 k}{k^2} Now, someone here told me to replace that with \int_0^\infty \frac{1}{2} 2\pi...

OK, this is where I get: CP \mid \pi^0 \rangle = CP \frac{\mid u \bar{u} \rangle - \mid d \bar{d} \rangle}{\sqrt{2}} = \frac{ CP \mid u \bar{u} \rangle - CP \mid d \bar{d} \rangle}{\sqrt{2}} = \frac{C \mid \bar{u} u \rangle - C \mid \bar{d} d \rangle}{\sqrt{2}} = \frac{ \mid u \bar{u} \rangle -...

Hi, I have a question regarding the CP operator on pion systems. 1) CP \mid \pi^0 \rangle 2) CP \mid \pi^+ \pi^- \rangle 3) CP \mid \pi^0 \pi^0 \rangle I'd like to solve this in the above ket notation and apply the operators as is on the different parts of the represented wave function...