Double integral to single by magic substitution

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SUMMARY

The discussion focuses on the transformation of a double integral into a single integral using a substitution method in the context of particle physics. The original double integral, represented as \(\iint_0^\infty \frac{d^2 k}{k^2}\), is simplified to \(\int_0^\infty \frac{1}{2} 2\pi \frac{d k^2}{k^2}\) through a substitution that leverages polar coordinates. The conversation highlights the challenges of convergence in integrals related to structure function calculations in elementary particle physics.

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double integral to single by "magic" substitution

Hi,

I have a double (actually quadruple, but the other dimensions don't matter here) integral which looks like this:

[tex]\iint_0^\infty \frac{d^2 k}{k^2}[/tex]

Now, someone here told me to replace that with

[tex]\int_0^\infty \frac{1}{2} 2\pi \frac{d k^2}{k^2}[/tex]

How and why is this ok? Thanks!

PS: For anyone wondering where this comes up: it's related to Elementary Particle physics and structure function calculation.
 
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If your first integral is meant to be:

[tex]I= \int_{-\infty}^\infty \int_0^\infty \frac{\mathrm{d}k_1\, \mathrm{d} k_2}{k_1^2 + k_2^2}[/tex]

then you *could* use polar coordinates to give:

[tex]I = \int_0^\pi \int_0^\infty \frac{ r\mathrm{d} r\, \mathrm{d} \theta}{r^2} = \pi \int_0^\infty \frac{ \mathrm{d} r}{r}[/tex]

which seems to be the same as what you have written. However, the integral doesn't make a lot of sense - it fails to converge (logarithmic singularity). Although perhaps if this is from particle physics, you don't mind this divergence.
 


Thanks, that looks good. The integrand isn't complete here (waaaay too big to put here).
 

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