A question about CP Violation.

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The discussion centers on the standard model's prediction of a matter-antimatter imbalance in the universe, where it suggests there should be more matter than antimatter, but not to the extent observed. Participants confirm that while the standard model acknowledges this disparity, it does not provide a complete explanation for the significant imbalance. The conversation highlights that certain weak decays occur at different rates compared to their antimatter counterparts, contributing to the imbalance. However, these known instances alone cannot fully account for the observed dominance of matter. The complexities of weak decays and their rates remain a topic of inquiry in understanding CP violation.
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Am I correct in my understanding that the standard model predicts that there should be more matter than antimatter in the universe, but not the dominant proportion that is observed? Is that the basic problem?
 
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Thank you very much for your answer and welcome.
Does the standard model predict this disparity because the interactions of the strong force are more statistically likely than those of the weak force?
 
Don't understand the question - which predicted disparity?
Did you read the link?
 
damian081 said:
Am I correct in my understanding that the standard model predicts that there should be more matter than antimatter in the universe, but not the dominant proportion that is observed? Is that the basic problem?
Yes.

damian081 said:
Does the standard model predict this disparity because the interactions of the strong force are more statistically likely than those of the weak force?
No, at least one reason for the matter-antimatter imbalance is that certain reactions (weak decays) go at different rates than their anti- versions. As you said, the known instances of this are not sufficient in themselves to explain the large matter-antimatter imbalance.
 
Bill_K said:
Yes.


No, at least one reason for the matter-antimatter imbalance is that certain reactions (weak decays) go at different rates than their anti- versions. As you said, the known instances of this are not sufficient in themselves to explain the large matter-antimatter imbalance.

Is that to say then that weak decays produce matter at a higher rate than anti matter or that there are weak decays and anti-weak decays?
 
Time reversal invariant Hamiltonians must satisfy ##[H,\Theta]=0## where ##\Theta## is time reversal operator. However, in some texts (for example see Many-body Quantum Theory in Condensed Matter Physics an introduction, HENRIK BRUUS and KARSTEN FLENSBERG, Corrected version: 14 January 2016, section 7.1.4) the time reversal invariant condition is introduced as ##H=H^*##. How these two conditions are identical?

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