A question on eigenstates and operators

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    Eigenstates Operators
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Discussion Overview

The discussion centers on the properties of eigenstates and operators in quantum mechanics, specifically regarding the exponential operator \( e^{i\hat{x}} \) and its relationship with eigenstates. Participants explore the implications of this operator and its eigenvalues, as well as the generalization to other operators.

Discussion Character

  • Technical explanation
  • Conceptual clarification
  • Debate/contested

Main Points Raised

  • One participant questions the expression \( =e^{ix'}\delta(x'-x) \) and seeks clarification on whether \( |x> \) is an eigenstate of the operator \( e^{i\hat{x}} \) and the nature of its eigenvalue.
  • Another participant suggests proving the expression using a power series expansion of the operator \( e^{i\hat{x}} \).
  • A participant acknowledges the proof and generalizes that if \( \hat{Z} \) is any operator, then its eigenfunctions \( |Z> \) are also eigenfunctions of \( e^{i\hat{Z}} \).
  • It is noted that \( |Z> \) is an eigenfunction of any function \( f(\hat{Z}) \) of the operator \( \hat{Z} \), with the corresponding eigenvalue being \( f(Z) \).

Areas of Agreement / Disagreement

Participants generally agree on the properties of eigenfunctions related to operators and their exponential forms, but there is some uncertainty regarding the specific implications of the initial expression and its interpretation.

Contextual Notes

The discussion involves assumptions about the nature of operators and eigenstates, as well as the applicability of power series expansions. The implications of these mathematical expressions are not fully resolved.

vertices
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Why can we say that:

<x'|e^{i\hat{x}}|x>=e^{ix'}\delta(x'-x)

where where \hat{x} is an operator?

I mean if

\hat{x}|x>=x|x>

we may write <x'|\hat{x}|x>=x<x'|x>=x\delta(x'-x)

but in the expression at the top, we have an exponential operator (something I've never come across before) - is |x> an eigenstate of this operator (it seems to be), and why is the eigenvalue of the operator exactly the same form as the operator?

Thanks.
 
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You can prove it by using power series expansion

e^{i\hat{x}} = 1 + i\hat{x} - \hat{x}^2/2! + \ldots

Eugene.
 
meopemuk said:
You can prove it by using power series expansion

e^{i\hat{x}} = 1 + i\hat{x} - \hat{x}^2/2! + \ldots

Eugene.

Aaahh thanks Eugene. So in general if {\hat{Z}} is any operator and |Z> the eigenfunctions of this operator, we can also say that |Z> are also the eigenfunctions of e^{i\hat{Z}}.
 
vertices said:
Aaahh thanks Eugene. So in general if {\hat{Z}} is any operator and |Z> the eigenfunctions of this operator, we can also say that |Z> are also the eigenfunctions of e^{i\hat{Z}}.

That's right. |Z> is an eigenfunction of any function f(\hat{Z}) of the operator \hat{Z}. The corresponding eigenvalue is f(Z).

Eugene.
 

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