Hi. First off, sorry about the title, its not very descriptive but I had no clue on how to sum my question. I'm reading Sakurais' Modern Quantum Mechanics. In the discussion of the K operators (p47) he compares it to the classical momentum operator, states that K = p/(some constant) , and mentions that if microphysics had been discovered before macrophysics the conversion constant would had been 1. My question is what does this exactly mean? If we had discovered quantum physics first we would have defined K first, and then we would have discovered p and tried to relate both: wouldn't we have neede a constant there, too? Thanks.