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Was just thinking, is it ever possible that the same phenomenon can be fully explained by two theories that are not subset of each other?

The discussion centers on the possibility of multiple theories fully explaining the same phenomenon, particularly in the context of scientific modeling and the implications of simplicity and assumptions in theory selection. It explores the nature of physical theories as mathematical models and their relationship to empirical data.
Participants express differing views on the likelihood of multiple theories fully explaining the same phenomenon, with some emphasizing the rarity of such occurrences in established science, while others maintain that it is theoretically possible.
The discussion reflects varying assumptions about the nature of scientific theories, the role of simplicity, and the dynamics of theory evolution in both established and emerging fields.
Drakkith said:Of course. It's just extremely unlikely that both theories are equally simple with the same amount of assumptions. One would almost inevitably fall under Occam's Razor.
cosmik debris said:Physical theories are mathematical models and for any set of given data there are an infinite number of models that fit that data. As the other poster said, one usually chooses the simplest.