lendav_rott said:
I made an excel table quick and dirty for the calculation.
Here
The assumptions are that expenses are subtracted before interest gain and the 15 year renovation fee applies to the 16th year, meaning it can run for 15 years and then there is renovation. Once it reaches -xx xxx dollars it returns nothing but 0s for the visual of it.
The only difference is I didn't pay up front for the construction, which is why we have differences.
I won't download your file because my security system advises against it; I think you would be better to print it out as a pdf file instead of an executable file.
So, I cannot tell exactly what you have done, but I can say how I would do it in EXCEL. First, I would choose units of $10,000 instead of dollars, so the payments would be 50 for construction, ##a = 1## annually for operating and ##m = 20## at the end of each 15-year stretch, all in an environment with an interest rate of ##r = 1/10##. I would leave open some cell, say A1, to hold the starting bank balance. Like you, I would leave out the construction cost of 50, because we would just put it in the bank and draw it out again instantly. So, A1 holds the starting balance that is to cover future costs of operating and maintenance. In the following, I will leave a, m and r as symbolic constants, so their role can be more easily separated and examined; however, we of course use a = 1, m = 20 and r = 0.1 in the spreadsheet.
In another cell, say B1, I would put (1+r)*A1 -a, which will be the bank balance just after the end of year 1 = starting balance for years 2,3,4,... . Then, in cell B2 I would put (1+r)*B1-a (balance at start of year 3), and would copy that formula all the way down to B15. The cell B15 will contain the bank balance at the end of year 15, after paying for operating but before maintenance. I would put in cell B16 the quantity B15-m, which is the starting balance for years 16, 17,... after paying for maintenance. This quantity should be the same as the starting balance in A1, so now I would use the EXCEL Solver tool to solve the equation A1 = B16.
If you take the time to work out algebraically what is happening, you will find that
B16 = A1 \cdot (1+r)^{15} - m - a [1 + (1+r) + (1+r)^2 + \cdots + (1+r)^{14}].
This involves a finite geometric sum, which is doable using
1 + u + u^2 + \cdots + u^N = \frac{u^{N+1} - 1}{u-1}
with ##u = 1+r## and ##N = 14##. We can solve the equation to get
A1 = \frac{a}{r} + \frac{m}{(1+r)^{15}-1}
This ought to be the solution arrived at by the EXCEL Solver tool.
Here comes the magic: the NPV of all payments is simply
\text{NPV} = a (R + R^2 + R^3 + \cdots) + m (R^{15} + R^{30} + \cdots ) <br />
= \frac{a R}{R-1} + \frac{m R^{15}}{R^{15}-1},
where ##R = 1/(1+r)##. If you grind it through you will see that NPV and A1 are equal; that is, the simple NPV calculation has hidden in it all the details of earned interest as income and various payments over time as outgo.