Can one speak of the wave function of a object measured?

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SUMMARY

The discussion centers on the interpretation of wave functions in quantum mechanics, specifically regarding measured objects and their relationship to measuring devices. It establishes that for von Neumann measurements, the wave function of the measured object corresponds to the definite state of the measuring device, affirming option (a). In contrast, for measurements of the second kind, the measured object's state post-measurement does not reflect the measured state due to the detector's back action, as referenced in the provided Stanford resource.

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nomadreid
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Elementary question:
When one talks of a wave function of a measured object collapsing or decohering or splitting (pick your interpretation), what we base everything on is the measuring pointer. So, which of the following is the case?
(a) one calculates with help of coupling constants etc. what wave function of the measured object must correspond to the definite state of the measuring object, or
(b) wave function of the measured object is just shorthand for "the wave form of the measuring device" ?
Thanks.
 
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In the case of a von Neumann (or Pauli?) measurement of the first kind i think a) is right.

For a measurement of the second kind, it looks like the answer is similar to a) but the state of the measured object after the measurement doesn't actually end up being the state you've measured, due to a "back action" of the detector, according to http://www.stanford.edu/~rsasaki/AP226/text4.pdf
 
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psmt, thanks very much for the answer and the link, which looked very useful on a first cursory reading. I look forward to reading it more carefully.
 

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