Can the bare mass of a photon be set to zero in gauge theories?

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SUMMARY

The discussion centers on the implications of gauge symmetry on the mass of the photon in gauge theories. It is established that gauge symmetry prevents the photon from acquiring a bare mass, as the 1-loop correction does not include a momentum-independent term due to gauge invariance. However, there is a nuanced argument regarding the relationship between bare mass and renormalized mass, suggesting that while the bare mass can theoretically be set to zero, practical implications arise when using a cut-off, leading to a quadratic dependence on the cut-off that complicates this assertion.

PREREQUISITES
  • Understanding of gauge theories and gauge symmetry
  • Familiarity with concepts of bare mass and renormalized mass
  • Knowledge of 1-loop corrections in quantum field theory
  • Experience with dimensional regularization and cut-off methods
NEXT STEPS
  • Research the implications of gauge symmetry on particle mass in quantum electrodynamics (QED)
  • Study the relationship between bare mass and renormalized mass in \phi^4 theory
  • Examine the role of dimensional regularization in quantum field theories
  • Investigate the effects of cut-off regularization on mass terms in gauge theories
USEFUL FOR

The discussion is beneficial for theoretical physicists, particularly those specializing in quantum field theory, gauge theories, and particle physics, as well as graduate students seeking to deepen their understanding of mass generation mechanisms in quantum electrodynamics.

geoduck
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I read somewhere that gauge symmetry prevents the photon from acquiring a mass. The argument seems to go that the 1-loop correction to the photon won't contain a term independent of the external momentum due to gauge invariance, so there is no need for a bare mass counter-term.

So should that statement be modified to gauge symmetry prevents the photon from acquiring a bare mass?

Can't you always set the renormalized mass equal to zero, even if gauge symmetry is lacking? Like a \phi^4 theory?

Also, shouldn't the relationship between bare mass and renormalized mass be that they will always be proportional to each other, because there are no other parameters in the theory with dimensions of mass? Then it should follow that the bare mass can always be set to zero?
 
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geoduck said:
I read somewhere that gauge symmetry prevents the photon from acquiring a mass. The argument seems to go that the 1-loop correction to the photon won't contain a term independent of the external momentum due to gauge invariance, so there is no need for a bare mass counter-term.

So should that statement be modified to gauge symmetry prevents the photon from acquiring a bare mass?

Can't you always set the renormalized mass equal to zero, even if gauge symmetry is lacking? Like a \phi^4 theory?

Also, shouldn't the relationship between bare mass and renormalized mass be that they will always be proportional to each other, because there are no other parameters in the theory with dimensions of mass? Then it should follow that the bare mass can always be set to zero?
There is quite a subtlety with putting bare mass equal to zero for photon. In fact, if you will put bare mass of photon equal to zero, you will find that with a convergence factor included physical mass of photon goes quadratic with the cut-off !

This is as bad as it sounds, the 1 loop correction to photon propagator will include a mass term in zero momentum limit coming from the polarization tensor and it is not zero. Gauge invariance and lorentz invariance can not alone make it zero because this tensor can still have a pole at k2=0.
 
andrien said:
There is quite a subtlety with putting bare mass equal to zero for photon. In fact, if you will put bare mass of photon equal to zero, you will find that with a convergence factor included physical mass of photon goes quadratic with the cut-off !

It seems with dimensional regularization you can put the bare mass to zero because the 1-loop won't contribute a momentum-independent term.

But with cut-off you'll get a term that goes quadratic with cut-off. But then can't you set the bare mass equal to opposite of this cut-off, so that the renormalized mass is zero?

Gauge invariance and lorentz invariance can not alone make it zero because this tensor can still have a pole at k2=0.

It can have a pole at k2=0 if you adjust the bare mass to cancel the quadratic cutoff term?
 

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