Can var(x+y) Be Less Than or Equal to 2(var(x) + var(y))?

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The proof that var(x+y) ≤ 2(var(x) + var(y)) is established using the Cauchy-Schwarz inequality. The discussion outlines that var(x+y) can be expressed as var(x) + var(y) + 2cov(x,y), where cov(x,y) is defined as E(xy) - E(x)E(y). By applying the Cauchy-Schwarz inequality, it is demonstrated that 2cov(x,y) is less than or equal to 2 times the geometric mean of var(x) and var(y), leading to the conclusion that the inequality holds true.

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Hi, I was hoping that someone might be able to please help me with this proof.

Prove that var(x+y) ≤ 2(var(x) + var(y)).

So far I have:

var(x+y) = var(x) + var(y) + 2cov(x,y)

where the cov(x,y) = E(xy) - E(x)E(y), but I'm not really sure to go from there.
Any insight would be very helpful!

Thanks!
 
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Let \alpha=var(x),\beta=var(y),\gamma=cov(x,y). According to the Cauchy-Schwarz inequality (see http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Cauchy%E2%80%93Schwarz_inequality for the proof), \gamma^{2}\leq{}\alpha\beta. We want to show \alpha{}+\beta{}+2\gamma\leq{}2(\alpha{}+\beta), which follows directly from

2\gamma\leq{}2(\gamma^{2})^{\frac{1}{2}}\leq{}2(\alpha\beta)^{\frac{1}{2}}\leq{}2(\frac{\alpha{}+\beta}{2})\leq{}\alpha{}+\beta

where (\alpha\beta)^{\frac{1}{2}}\leq{}\frac{\alpha{}+\beta}{2} follows from the well-known fact that the geometric mean is always smaller than the arithmetic mean (see http://www.cut-the-knot.org/pythagoras/corollary.shtml for proof).
 
Awesome! Thanks so much for your help!
 
You are welcome.
 

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