Can you prove the properties of convolution?

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SUMMARY

The discussion focuses on proving the properties of convolution, specifically the commutative, distributive, and associative properties. The convolution of two functions \(f\) and \(g\) is defined by the integral \((f\ast g)(t) = \int_0^{t}f(t-\tau)g(\tau)\,d\tau\). Participants Sudharaka and Badhi provided correct solutions demonstrating these properties, confirming that \(f\ast g = g\ast f\), \(f\ast (g_1 + g_2) = f\ast g_1 + f\ast g_2\), and \(f\ast(g\ast h) = (f\ast g)\ast h\).

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  • Understanding of integral calculus
  • Familiarity with the concept of convolution
  • Knowledge of function properties in mathematical analysis
  • Basic proficiency in mathematical notation and proofs
NEXT STEPS
  • Study the mathematical definition and applications of convolution in signal processing
  • Explore the implications of the commutative property in Fourier transforms
  • Research the role of convolution in linear systems theory
  • Learn about the use of convolution in machine learning, particularly in convolutional neural networks (CNNs)
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Thanks to those who participated in last week's POTW! Here's this week's problem.

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Problem: Recall that the convolution of $f$ and $g$ is defined by the integral

\[(f\ast g)(t) = \int_0^{t}f(t-\tau)g(\tau)\,d\tau.\]

Establish the commutative, distributive, and associative properties of convolution, i.e.

(1) $f\ast g = g\ast f$
(2) $f\ast (g_1 + g_2) = f\ast g_1 + f\ast g_2$
(3) $f\ast(g\ast h) = (f\ast g)\ast h$.

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This week's question was correctly answered by Sudharaka and Badhi. You can find their solutions below.

Sudharaka's solution:

\[(f*g)(t)=\int_{0}^{t}f(t-\tau)g(\tau)\,d\tau\]

Substituting \(u=t-\tau\) we get,\begin{eqnarray}(f*g)(t)&=&-\int_{t}^{0}f(u)g(t-u)\,du\\&=&\int_{0}^{t}f(u)g(t-u)\,du\\&=&(g*f)(t)\end{eqnarray}\[\therefore f*g=g*f~~~~~~~~~~~~~(1)\]\begin{eqnarray}[f*(g_{1}+g_{2})](t)&=&\int_{0}^{t}f(t-\tau)(g_{1}+g_{2})(\tau)\,d\tau\\&=&\int_{0}^{t}f(t-\tau)[g_{1}(\tau)+g_{2}(\tau)]\,d\tau\\&=&\int_{0}^{t}f(t-\tau)g_{1}(\tau)\,d\tau+\int_{0}^{t}f(t-\tau)g_{2}(\tau)\,d\tau\\&=&(f*g_{1})(t)+(f*g_{2})(t)\end{eqnarray}\[\therefore f*(g_{1}+g_{2})=(f*g_{1})+(f*g_{2})~~~~~~~~~~~~~(2)\]\begin{eqnarray}[(f*g)*h](t)&=&\int_{0}^{t}(f*g)(t-\tau)h(\tau)\,d\tau\\&=&\int_{0}^{t}\left[\int_{0}^{t-\tau}f(t-\tau-u)g(u)\,du\right]h(\tau)\,d\tau\\\end{eqnarray}Substituting \(w=u+\tau\) we get,\[[(f*g)*h](t)=\int_{0}^{t}\left[\int_{\tau}^{t}f(t-w)g(w-\tau)\,dw\right]h(\tau)\,d\tau\]Changing the order of integration,\begin{eqnarray}[(f*g)*h](t)&=&\int_{0}^{t}\left[\int_{0}^{w}f(t-w)g(w-\tau)h(\tau)\,d\tau\right]\,dw\\&=&\int_{0}^{t}f(t-w)\left[\int_{0}^{w}g(w-\tau)h(\tau)\,d\tau\right]\,dw\\&=&\int_{0}^{t}f(t-w)(g*h)(w)\,dw\\&=&[f*(g*h)](t)\end{eqnarray}\[\therefore (f*g)*h=f*(g*h)~~~~~~~~~~~~~(3)\]

BAdhi's solution:

from the definition,
$$(f\ast g)(t)=\int_0^tf(t-\tau)g(\tau)\,d \tau$$(1) Proving that $f\ast g=g\ast f$$f\ast g =\int_0^tf(t-\tau )g(\tau )\,d \tau$with the substitution,
$$\begin{align*}t-\tau=v\\
\,dv=-\,d\tau\\
\end{align*}$$then,
$$\tau=0 \implies v=t, \qquad \tau=t \implies v=0$$
$\begin{align*}
f\ast g &=\int_0^tf(t-\tau )g(\tau )\,d \tau\\
&=-\int_t^0f(v)g(t-v)\,dv\\
\end{align*}
$Since the definite integral is independent from the variable, we can substitute $v$ with $\tau$then the equation becomes,$\begin{align*}f\ast g &=-\int_t^0f(\tau )g(t-\tau )\, d\tau\\
&=\int_0^tf(\tau )g(t-\tau )\, d\tau\\
&=\underbrace{\int_0^tg(t-\tau )f(\tau )\, d\tau }_{g\ast f}\\
\end{align*}$thus proves the commutative property,
$$f\ast g=g\ast f$$(2) proving, $f\ast (g_1+g_2)=f\ast g_1 +f\ast g_2$$\begin{align*}
f\ast(g_1+g_2)&=\int_0^tf(t-\tau )\left[g_1(\tau )+g_2(\tau )\right]\, d\tau \\
&=\int_0^t f(t-\tau )g_1(\tau ) + f(t-\tau)g_2(\tau )\, d\tau \\
&=\underbrace{\int_0^t f(t-\tau )g_1(\tau )\, d\tau }_{f\ast g_1} + \underbrace{\int_0^t f(t-\tau )g_2(\tau )\, d\tau }_{f\ast g_2}\\
\end{align*}
$thus proves the distributive property,
$$f\ast (g_1+g_2)=f\ast g_1 +f\ast g_2$$(3) proving that, $f\ast (g\ast h)=(f\ast g)\ast h$$\begin{align*}
f\ast (g\ast h) &= (g\ast h)\ast f \qquad \qquad \left(from \;proof: (1)\right)\\
&=\int_0^t\left[ (g\ast h)(t-\tau )\right] f(\tau ) \,d\tau \\
&=\int_0^tf(\tau )\left[ \int_0^{t-\tau} g(t- \tau -u)h(u) \,du\right]\,d\tau\\
&=\int_0^t\int_0^{t-\tau}f(\tau )g(t-\tau -u)h(u)\,du\,d\tau \\
\end{align*}$by changing the order of the integral, the change of boundaries of $\tau$ and $u$ are,$0<\tau<t,\: 0<u<(t-\tau) \longrightarrow 0<u<t, \: 0<\tau<(t-u) $then,$
\begin{align*}
f\ast (g\ast h) &=\int_0^t\int_0^{t-u}f(\tau )g(t-\tau -u)h(u)\,d\tau\,du\\
\end{align*}$since $h(u)$ is independent from $\tau$,$\begin{align*}
f\ast (g\ast h) &=\int_0^th(u)\underbrace{\left[ \int_0^{t-u}f(\tau )g(t-u-\tau )\,d\tau\right]}_{(g\ast f)(t-u)} \,du\\
&=\int_0^th(u)[(g\ast f)(t-u)]\,du\\
&=(g\ast f)\ast h
\end{align*}$from $proof : (1) $,$f\ast (g\ast h)=(f\ast g)\ast h$Thus proves the associative property,$$f\ast (g\ast h)=(f\ast g)\ast h$$
 

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