Delta function and derivative of function wrt itself

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Discussion Overview

The discussion revolves around the mathematical expression \(\frac{\partial f(x)}{\partial f(y)} = \delta(x-y)\) and its implications, particularly in the context of the Dirac delta function and its properties in functional analysis. The scope includes theoretical exploration and mathematical reasoning related to derivatives and delta functions.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory
  • Technical explanation
  • Mathematical reasoning

Main Points Raised

  • One participant requests an explanation of the expression \(\frac{\partial f(x)}{\partial f(y)} = \delta(x-y)\).
  • Another participant suggests that the expression \(\frac{\partial f(x)}{\partial g(y)}\) is shorthand with specific manipulation rules, noting that \(\frac{\partial f(x)}{\partial f(y)}\) equals 1 when \(x=y\) and 0 otherwise.
  • A different participant emphasizes the importance of considering how the Dirac delta function behaves under integration, referencing two integral properties involving the delta function.
  • A later reply cites a source, stating that for a functional \(F=F[f]\), the relationship \(\frac{\delta F(f(x))}{\delta f(y)} = \frac{dF}{df} \delta(x-y)\) is necessary to maintain consistency in the expression for \(\delta F\).

Areas of Agreement / Disagreement

Participants express various interpretations and manipulations of the delta function and its derivatives, indicating that multiple competing views remain without a clear consensus on the foundational aspects of the expressions discussed.

Contextual Notes

The discussion includes assumptions about the properties of the Dirac delta function and its application in functional derivatives, which may not be universally accepted or defined in the same way by all participants.

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Can someone explain the following profound truth: \frac {\partial f(x)}{\partial f(y)} =\delta(x-y)
 
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The expression \dfrac{\partial f(x)}{\partial g(y)} is really just a short-hand, but there are a handful of rules about which manipulations "usually work" with the short-hand. It turns out that the convention you've named---that \dfrac{\partial f(x)}{\partial f(y)} is 1 if x=y and 0 if x\neq y---gives us a slightly broader notion of "usually".
 
When you see the Dirac delta function in action, you ought to remind yourself:
"How will this look like when I integrate the expression?"

I haven't seen the result you post before, but do remember the two following results:
\int_{-\infty}^{\infty}f(x)\delta{(x-y)}dx=f(y)
\int_{-\infty}^{\infty}f(y)\delta{(x-y)}dy=f(x)
Most likely, your result follows from some clever manipulation of these two basic results.
 
Thanks for the replies.
Have found the answer in Parr and Yang's book on Density Functional Theory:
For a functional F=F[f] have
\delta F = \int \frac {\delta F} {\delta f(y)} \delta f(y) \,dy
In a special case that F=F(f), i.e. F is just some function of f it is required that:
\frac {\delta F(f(x))} {\delta f(y)} = \frac {dF}{df} \delta(x-y) in order to have:
\delta F = \int \frac {\delta F} {\delta f(y)} \delta f(y) \,dx = \frac {dF} {df} \delta f(x)
So that taking F = f, get:
\frac {\delta f(x)} {\delta f(y)} = \delta (x-y)
 
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