Izzhov Messages 120 Reaction score 0 Thread starter Jan 2, 2008 #1 Is there a proof or disproof that any given finite string of digits will occur somewhere in Pi?
HallsofIvy Science Advisor Homework Helper Messages 42,895 Reaction score 983 Jan 2, 2008 #2 No, there isn't. That would be equivalent, I think, to saying that [itex]\pi[/itex] is a "normal number" and that has not been proved or disproved.
No, there isn't. That would be equivalent, I think, to saying that [itex]\pi[/itex] is a "normal number" and that has not been proved or disproved.
arildno Science Advisor Homework Helper Gold Member Dearly Missed Messages 10,165 Reaction score 138 Jan 2, 2008 #3 It smells equivalent to the property of normalness, but I'm not sure if it is easy to prove..