f95toli said:
I agree that it makes sense (or at least is useful) when dealing with transport phenomena (which I also wrote in the other thread). But the question was if the definition of momentum requires movement,
I would say that yes, it does. I would say that
movement does not require having an exactly defined position or momentum. (analogies abound) Something is 'moving' relative you if it has kinetic energy relative your frame of reference, and obeys Newton's laws of motions. This is true whether you're talking about classical or quantum mechanical particles. It's also implicit in how the QM definition/derivation of the momentum operator.
Classical motion then, like all classical physics, then becomes a limiting case of QM. Classical particles obey Newton's laws of motion
because quantum particles do so. 'Motion' in QM is not an analogy, it's
the same thing.
Or to put it another way: At which point in the transition from quantum to classical domains would you say that things
start moving, then? And in what way is that motion fundamentally different?
i.e. even when dealing with electrons in an atom. I would argue that the idea of something "moving" is more of a hindrance than a help in the latter case.
And I would say the opposite. Electron motion in atomic and molecular orbitals is usually referred to as such. Not 'motion' but as real motion. It's implicit, then, that you're
not implying the kind of exact, stable trajectories of the Bohr atomic model. Anyone who's past the level of introductory QM knows that. Throwing out the concept of 'motion' just because the details of the Bohr model concept were wrong is overzealous.
But if you do
not think of electrons in an atom as moving, then you will have big trouble understanding the central and still-relevant problem of electron correlation. I.e. the quantum many-body problem. Which is not an
analogy to the classical many-body problem. It's
the same problem, and difficult for the same reasons. Using wave functions instead of exact coordinates complicates matters, but does not change the fundamental difficulty of it.
This is an analogy: Electrons in a stationary state, have a time-independent location-probability distribution and therefore
appear not to be moving, although they have momentum. Likewise, water flowing through a transparent pipe
appears to be stationary, but is not.
Defining motion as 'appearing to move' doesn't make sense; it would exclude lots of classical phenomena like standing waves. I see no reason to define 'motion' as requiring exactly-defined positions and momentums.