Euclideanizing Action: Refs & Fermionic/Spin-1 YM Actions

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SUMMARY

The discussion focuses on the procedure of Euclideanizing actions in quantum field theory, specifically addressing the Wick rotation in the context of fermionic and spin-1 Yang-Mills actions. Participants seek clarity on whether Euclideanized actions yield the same numerical results or if they represent distinct quantities. The conversation highlights the complexities of integrating over imaginary time and the proper treatment of time components, particularly the multiplication of \( A^0 \) by the imaginary unit \( i \) during the Euclideanization process.

PREREQUISITES
  • Understanding of quantum field theory concepts
  • Familiarity with Wick rotation techniques
  • Knowledge of fermionic actions and spin-1 Yang-Mills theories
  • Basic grasp of complex analysis in the context of integration
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  • Research the detailed procedure of Wick rotation in quantum field theory
  • Study the implications of integrating over imaginary time in quantum mechanics
  • Examine the treatment of fermionic actions during Euclideanization
  • Explore the mathematical foundations of complex integration and its applications in physics
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The discussion is beneficial for theoretical physicists, particularly those specializing in quantum field theory, as well as graduate students seeking to deepen their understanding of Euclideanization and its applications in particle physics.

TriTertButoxy
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Is there a good reference on the procedure of Euclideanizing the action? In particular, giving a detailed account of Wick rotating in this context. I can't seem to figure out if they are supposed to give precisely the same answer (even numerically), but just that one converges better, or if they are two different quantities (just one related to the other).

Also, is there a standard way of Euclideanizing the fermionic action and the spin-1 Yang Mills action? There seem to be subtleties which seems very poorly motivated. For example, multiplying [itex]\sigma^0[/itex] and [itex]A^0[/itex] by the imaginary unit, [itex]i[/itex].
 
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I don't understand Euclideanizing the action either, so I'm bumping this!

Does it even make sense to integrate over imaginary time? How would you go about doing this? - finding the anti-derivative of the integral, and plugging in imaginary +- infinity via the fundamental theorem of calculus?

Sometimes Euclideanizing the action is called a Wick rotation, which is confusing because there is this other Wick rotation used in momentum space which is definitely sound.

As for multiplying [tex]A^0[/tex] by the imaginary unit 'i', that would kind of make sense, since [tex]A^0[/tex] transforms like time. However, shouldn't it be '-i', and not '+i', since the relation is [tex]\tau=it[/tex] where [tex]\tau[/tex] is the Euclidean time.
 

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