Find the solutions to this inquality by induction

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around proving the inequality involving the sum of the series of reciprocals of squares, specifically, that the sum from i=1 to n of 1/i^2 is less than or equal to 2. The subject area is mathematical induction and series convergence.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Assumption checking, Mathematical reasoning

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants explore various approaches to prove the inequality using induction. Some express uncertainty about their methods and seek hints for a more inductive approach. Others discuss the validity of comparing terms in the series and question the assumptions made in their reasoning.

Discussion Status

The discussion is ongoing, with participants sharing their attempts and questioning the validity of their approaches. Some guidance has been offered regarding the base case and the next steps in the inductive proof, but no consensus has been reached on a definitive method.

Contextual Notes

Participants note the need for a clear inductive step and express confusion about the transition from the base case to the general case. There is also mention of using specific values of n to explore the behavior of the series.

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Homework Statement


sum of i from i = 1 to n 1/i^2 <= 2




The Attempt at a Solution


I have a solution, that for any n the sum from i to n of 1/i^2 < sum 1/i(i-1) = 1/(i-1) - 1/i .. et c but this is not inductive.. can I get any hints? thank you
 
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emyt said:

Homework Statement


\sum_{i=1}^{n}\ \frac{1}{i^2}\ \le\ 2



The Attempt at a Solution


I have a solution, that for any n the sum from i to n of 1/i^2 < sum 1/i(i-1) = 1/(i-1) - 1/i ... etc but this is not inductive.. can I get any hints? thank you
Here is your original expression. Click on it to copy & edit your Original Post, if you like.

\sum_{i=1}^{n}\ \frac{1}{i^2}\le 2

Certainly, 1 < 2, so it's true for the base case.

Assume that \sum_{i=1}^{n}\ \frac{1}{i^2}\le 2 is true for n≥1. Show that \sum_{i=1}^{n+1}\ \frac{1}{i^2}\le 2 is true.

You may also get some idea from looking at the sum for n=1, n=2, n=3, n=4, …

And/Or look at 2\ -\ \sum_{i=1}^{n}\ \frac{1}{i^2} for several values of n.
 


emyt said:
...

The Attempt at a Solution


I have a solution, that for any n the sum from i to n of 1/i^2 < sum 1/i(i-1) = 1/(i-1) - 1/i .. etc but this is not inductive.. can I get any hints? thank you
I can't figure out what you you're saying here.

Certainly, \frac{1}{i^2}&lt;\frac{1}{i(i-1)}\ \text{ for }\ i\ge2\ .

\sum_{i=1}^{n}\ \frac{1}{i^2}=1+\sum_{i=2}^{n}\ \frac{1}{i^2}\ &lt;\ 1+\sum_{i=2}^{n}\frac{1}{i(i-1)}=1+\sum_{j=1}^{n-1}\ \frac{1}{(j+1)j}

As it turns out, \sum_{j=1}^{\infty}\ \frac{1}{(j+1)j}=1\ , so this should be do-able.
 


Wolfram Alpha gives the following result:
\sum_{j=1}^{n-1}\ \frac{1}{(j+1)j}=1-\frac{1}{n}\

Proving that this is true is pretty straight forward using induction.

Note:
\sum_{j=1}^{(n+1)-1}\ \frac{1}{(j+1)j}=\frac{1}{(n+1)n}+\sum_{j=1}^{n-1}\ \frac{1}{(j+1)j}\ ,\text{ and }\frac{1}{(n+1)n}=\frac{n+1-n}{(n+1)n}=\frac{n+1}{(n+1)n}-\frac{n}{(n+1)n}​
 

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