Gravitational Field Paradox Explanation?? Hi everyone. If electric and gravitational field has an infinite nature-meaning that the effect one charged particle has on another charged particle always remains even though it diminishes over distances but can never reach absolute 0-then how is this possible without being some sort of paradox? It seems to me similar to a layman's version of quantum entanglement concept. What I mean is, if you think of a gravitational effect an object has on another object via 'gravitational field'. For instance let's say the earth exerts a certain gravitational field on a person floating in space a few thousand miles above the earth. Then let's say you move that person billions of light years away to the very edge of the known universe. The earth is said to be still exerting a gravitational field on that person just a very miniscule and mostly negligible amount. Yet to my understanding it is STILL an amount and can never be 0. So my main question is this: Since the earth is always exerting this gravitational field onto this person instantaneously, then isn't this a "faster than light" sort of transmission? For instance let's say that right now the earth is exerting this gravitational field on this person/object who is 15 billion light years away. And right this instant the earth was blown up to smithereens and completely annihilated. An equation would show presumably that the earth no longer exerts any field on this person 15 billion light years away instantaneously. The field of exertion presumably does not travel at light speed so I don't think it is right to say that it will now take 15 billion light years for the gravitational effect to wear off. I know this may be getting into the general area of the higgs-boson but if we wanted to simplify away from that then we can use the electromagnetic field or etc. So how is it that the "field" that is exerting the gravitational or electromagnetic pull on the person from 15 billion light years away, "INSTANTLY" knows that the earth no longer exists and thus no longer exerts that pull? Just to phrase this question into a slightly simpler thought experiment in case anyone is confused about my question (since I'm a completely un-educated noob in this regard so I realize some of the things I may be saying or describing are asinine). But let's take a hypothetical vacuum that is as wide as our universe but has no other matter in it that is able to exert any sort of electromagnetic or gravitational influence. i.e. not a single atom of matter exists OTHER than 2 objects that are separated by 15 billion light years. Since these objects are the ONLY 2 things in existence, if my fundamental understanding of these things serves, then the 2 objects will begin floating towards each other albeit at perhaps an exponentially and microscopically slow rate. But they will be exerting a gravitational pull on each other even from 15 billion light years away since as I understand it, gravitational "field" has no limit and can never be 0. So let's just say they're slowly creeping towards each other from 15 billion light years away and one of those objects suddenly disappears or is somehow annihilated (for the sake of this conversation let's pretend it's able to break law of conservation of matter and be annihilated). Then how does object #2 that is 15 billion light years away instantly stop pulling towards the gravitational field of object #1? This would require a superluminal instantaneous "communication" of the gravitational field from 15 billion light years away. Whether it's a higgs boson or whatever is responsible for gravity how can it immediately inform the 2nd object that is 15 billion light years away to stop being exerted by the force of the 1st object???