If [itex](R,S, +)[/itex] is a vectorspace with [itex]U, W[/itex] as subspaces, then [itex]U \oplus W = \{u + w | u \in U, w \in W\}[/itex] and every [itex]s \in S[/itex] can only be written in one possible way (as the sum of vectors of U and W). I.e. it's every possible combination of elements in [itex](R, U, +)[/itex] and [itex](R, W, +)[/itex].
Suppose U=<(1,0)>, V = <(1,1)> and W=<(0,1)> are subspaces, then
[itex]U \oplus W = R^2[/itex]. But how is [itex]U \oplus V = R^2[/itex]? I'm imagining [itex]R^2[/itex]. V is every possible vector through [itex]\stackrel{\rightarrow}{o}[/itex] with [itex]arg(v) = 1[/itex]. Then [itex]U \oplus V[/itex] would be the area under y = x for [itex]x > 0, y > 0[/itex]. How can you form (0,1) for example?
edit: come to think of it, would [itex](R, V, +)[/itex] also contain (0,1) and (1,2) etc? I sort of assumed from "[itex]\forall v \in V[/itex] and [itex]\forall r \in R: rv \in V[/itex]" that [itex](R, V, +)[/itex] would only contain (1,1), (2,2) etc, is that incorrect?
I'm sort of confused because my book says that if [itex]U \cap V \neq (0,0)[/itex] then [itex]U \oplus V[/itex] cannot exist. From the example, [itex]U \cap V[/itex] would be [itex]\{((x,0) | x \in R\}[/itex], but then (1,0) would be both in U and V?