How do i perform a measurement of a many body system?

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Discussion Overview

The discussion revolves around the measurement of a many-body quantum system, particularly focusing on the implications of measuring one position variable while leaving others unmeasured. Participants explore concepts related to wave functions, symmetrization, and the dimensionality of the problem.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory
  • Technical explanation
  • Debate/contested

Main Points Raised

  • One participant questions whether it is possible to measure only one position operator, \hat{q1}, without measuring \hat{q2>, and how this affects the wave function.
  • Another participant introduces the concept of symmetrization of the wave function, explaining that the probability distribution must remain unchanged upon exchanging particle labels, suggesting that all position operators are equivalent.
  • A different viewpoint argues against the necessity of dealing with symmetry problems in quantum mechanics, proposing that the many-body problem can be treated as a single-body problem in higher dimensions.
  • One participant challenges the previous claim, asserting that the wave function for a general system is a nonseparable scalar function of multiple arguments, which contains all relevant information about the system.

Areas of Agreement / Disagreement

Participants express differing views on the treatment of measurements in many-body systems, particularly regarding the role of symmetries and the dimensionality of the problem. No consensus is reached on these issues.

Contextual Notes

Participants highlight the complexity of measuring in many-body systems and the implications of symmetries, with some suggesting that the mathematical treatment may differ based on assumptions about dimensionality and particle indistinguishability.

spocchio
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first of all, I'm a new bie of QM,

with q1,p1 and q2,p2 the couples of position and momentum
THE QUESTION IS: can I just measure a [tex]\hat{q1}[/tex] with no measure of [tex]\hat{q2}[/tex]? and how? and how I calculate the new wave function with the dependece of q2?

I hope that [tex]\hat{q1}|q1,q2>=q1|q1,q2>[/tex] is true
if so when i have a certain state [tex]|\phi>[/tex]
and I measure q1 i'll obtain a new state like [tex]|phi>=|q1,q2>[/tex] with a probability of
[tex]|<q1,q2|\phi>|^2[/tex]
but wath q2 have I to choose?
but, does it have sense? the q2 dependece vanish!? where I'm wrong?

it could seems a bit confusing, sure as i am.
 
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You're touching on what is called symmetrization of the wave function. The probability distribution associated with the many-body state is given by |u(x1,x2)|^2 whe u is the many body wave function. We require that this be the same upon exchange of particle label, because we cannot in principle label quantum mechanical particles. That means |u(x1, x2)|^2 = |u(x2,x1)|^2. So it doesn't matter which position operator you use, they're all equivalent. The condition of the wave function itself is not unique mathematically. I.E. we could have u(x1,x2) differ from u(x2,x1) by some complex phase. However, in 3-dimensions symmetries of space-time require that u(x1,x2)=u(x2,x1) or u(x1,x2) = -u(x2,x1) (Ihave neglected the spin symmetries associated with the state. The former is true for bosons and the latter for fermions.
 
Oh, you are just making things more complicated...
as I know these problems of symmetries are forced in QM, they don't came from any
principal postulate.
I don't want to deal about these symmetries problems.
I think this problem of many bodies is mathematically equivalent to a problem of 1 body in N dimensions..
for example q1=x,q2=y for a free particle in 2D

so, the new version of the problem is:
for a particle in N Dimension, how do I perform a measurement in only one coordinate?
for example, with a slit.
 
That's incorrect. For a general system the wavefunction is a nonseperable scalar function of 3N arguments and contains all of the relevant information about the state of the system given the Hilbert space.
 

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