- #1

snoopies622

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- Thread starter snoopies622
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- #1

snoopies622

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- #2

The_Duck

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- #3

snoopies622

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Wow, how simple! Thanks The Duck.

- #4

akhmeteli

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Actually, in a general case (if a certain linear function of electromagnetic field does not vanish identically), three out of four components of the spinor function in the Dirac equation can be algebraically eliminated, yielding an equivalent fourth-order partial differential equation for just one component (http://akhmeteli.org/wp-content/uploads/2011/08/JMAPAQ528082303_1.pdf ). Furthermore, this remaining component can be made real by a gauge transform. So you can replace the Dirac equation by an equivalent equation for just one complex or real function.

- #5

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For (asymptotically) free single-particle states the interpretation is however correct. The Dirac field describes charged particles of spin 1/2 (2 field degrees of freedom) and their corresponding antiparticles of also spin 1/2 (2 field degrees of freedom).

- #6

kith

Science Advisor

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- #7

snoopies622

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