Is $B - A$ always similar to $B$ if $A$ is countable and $B$ is uncountable?

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SUMMARY

If $A$ is a countable set and $B$ is an uncountable set, then $B - A$ is similar to $B$. This conclusion is established through two cases: when $|A|$ is a finite integer and when $|A|$ is countably infinite ($\aleph_0$). In both scenarios, the cardinality of $B - A$ remains $2^{\aleph_0}$, confirming that $B - A$ is equinumerous to $B$. The discussion also highlights misconceptions regarding the subtraction of cardinalities in finite and infinite sets.

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If $A$ is a countable set and $B$ an uncountable set, prove that $B - A$ is similar to $B$.Case 1: $|A| = n\in\mathbb{Z}^+$
Since $B$ is uncountable, $|B| = 2^{\aleph_0}$.
Then $|B - A| = 2^{\aleph_0} - n = 2^{\aleph_0}$.
Therefore, $B - A$ is equinumerous to $B$, and hence $B - A$ is similar to $B$.Case 2: $|A| = \aleph_0$
Again, we have $|B - A| = 2^{\aleph_0} - \aleph_0 = 2^{\aleph_0}$
Therefore, $B - A$ is equinumerous to $B$, and hence $B - A$ is similar to $B$.

Does this work?
 
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What does "similar" mean?

dwsmith said:
Since $B$ is uncountable, $|B| = 2^{\aleph_0}$.
This is wrong. Also, even for finite sets, |B - A| is not necessarily |B| - |A|.
 
dwsmith said:
If $A$ is a countable set and $B$ an uncountable set, prove that $B - A$ is similar to $B$.
There is completely trivial proof if A is a subset of B.
You know that the union of two countable sets is countable.
You also know that $B=A\cup(B-A)$. What if $B-A$ were countable?
 
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