MHB Is Contour Integration the Key to Solving This Integral?

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    2017
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The discussion focuses on using contour integration to prove the integral of sin(x^α) from 0 to infinity, specifically showing that it equals sin(π/(2α)) multiplied by Γ(1 + 1/α) for α greater than 1. The problem of the week (POTW) encourages participants to engage with the solution provided by Opalg. Participants are reminded to follow the guidelines for submitting solutions and participating in the discussion. The thread emphasizes the mathematical techniques involved in contour integration. Overall, the discussion highlights the application of advanced calculus methods to solve complex integrals.
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Here is this week's POTW:

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Using contour integration, prove

$$\int_0^\infty \sin(x^\alpha)\, dx = \sin\left(\frac{\pi}{2\alpha}\right)\,\Gamma\!\left(1 + \frac{1}{\alpha}\right),\quad \alpha > 1.$$-----

Remember to read the http://www.mathhelpboards.com/showthread.php?772-Problem-of-the-Week-%28POTW%29-Procedure-and-Guidelines to find out how to http://www.mathhelpboards.com/forms.php?do=form&fid=2!
 
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This week's problem was solved by Opalg. You can read his solution below.
Integrate the function $f(z) = e^{iz^\alpha}$ over a "pizza slice" contour consisting of (1) the x-axis from $0$ to $r$, (2) a circular arc of radius $r$ from $r$ to $re^{i\pi/(2\alpha)}$, (3) a straight line from $re^{i\pi/(2\alpha)}$ to $0$, and then let $r\to\infty$. Call the three integrals $I_1$, $I_2$, $I_3$.

Then $$I_1 = \int_0^\infty e^{ix^\alpha}dx = \int_0^\infty (\cos(x^\alpha) + i\sin(x^\alpha))\,dx.$$

For $I_2$, use the parametrisation $z = re^{i\theta}$. Then $$|f(z)| = \bigl|\exp\bigl(i(re^{i\theta})^\alpha\bigr)\bigr| = \bigl|\exp\bigl(ir^\alpha e^{i\alpha\theta}\bigr)\bigr| = \bigl|\exp\bigl(ir^\alpha (\cos(\alpha\theta) + i\sin(\alpha\theta))\bigr)\bigr| = \bigl|\exp\bigl(ir^\alpha \cos(\alpha\theta) - r^\alpha\sin(\alpha\theta))\bigr)\bigr| \leqslant \bigl|e^{-r^\alpha\sin(\alpha\theta)}\bigr|.$$ But for $0\leqslant \theta \leqslant \pi/(2\alpha)$, $\sin(\alpha\theta) \geqslant k\alpha\theta$ for some positive constant $k$ (in fact, you could take $k = 2/\pi$). Therefore, on the contour of $I_2$, $|f(z)| \leqslant \exp(-kr^\alpha\theta)$, and so $$|I_2| \leqslant \int_0^{\pi/(2\alpha)}\exp(-kr^\alpha\theta)r\,d\theta = \Bigl[\frac{-r}{kr^\alpha}\exp(-kr^\alpha\theta)\Bigr]_0^{\pi/(2\alpha)} \leqslant \frac1{kr^{\alpha-1}} \to0 \text{ as } r\to\infty.$$

So $I_2 = 0$. That was a delicate and somewhat messy calculation, but I don't see how to shorten it.

For $I_3$ let $z = se^{i\pi/(2\alpha)}$. Then $$I_3 = \int_\infty^0 e^{-s^\alpha}e^{i\pi/(2\alpha)}ds = -e^{i\pi/(2\alpha)}\int_0^\infty e^{-s^\alpha}ds.$$ Substitute $t = s^\alpha$ (so that $dt = \alpha s^{\alpha-1}dt = \alpha t^{1 - \frac1\alpha}\,ds$) and integrate by parts to get $$\int_0^\infty e^{-s^\alpha}ds = \int_0^\infty e^{-t} \tfrac1\alpha t^{ \frac1\alpha - 1}\,dt = \int_0^\infty t^{1/\alpha}e^{-t}dt = \Gamma\bigl(1 + \tfrac1\alpha \bigr).$$ Hence $I_3 = -e^{i\pi/(2\alpha)}\Gamma\bigl(1 + \frac1\alpha \bigr)$.

The function $f(z)$ has no zeros inside the contour (or anywhere else for that matter), and so $I_1 + I_2 + I_3 = 0$. Therefore $$ \int_0^\infty (\cos(x^\alpha) + i\sin(x^\alpha))\,dx = e^{i\pi/(2\alpha)}\Gamma\bigl(1 + \tfrac1\alpha \bigr).$$ Finally, take the imaginary part to get $$\int_0^\infty \sin(x^\alpha)\,dx = \sin\bigl(\tfrac\pi{2\alpha}\bigr)\Gamma\bigl(1 + \tfrac1\alpha \bigr).$$