Is \(n^{n+1} > (n+1)^n\) for All \(n \geq 3\)?

  • Context: High School 
  • Thread starter Thread starter anemone
  • Start date Start date
Click For Summary
SUMMARY

The inequality \(n^{n+1} > (n+1)^n\) holds true for all natural numbers \(n \geq 3\). Members castor28 and kaliprasad provided correct proofs demonstrating this mathematical assertion. The proofs utilize properties of exponential growth and can be verified through mathematical induction or direct computation for specific values of \(n\). This conclusion is established based on rigorous mathematical reasoning and analysis.

PREREQUISITES
  • Understanding of exponential functions and their properties
  • Familiarity with mathematical induction techniques
  • Basic knowledge of inequalities in mathematics
  • Experience with proofs in number theory
NEXT STEPS
  • Study mathematical induction proofs in detail
  • Explore properties of exponential growth functions
  • Learn about inequalities and their applications in number theory
  • Investigate other mathematical problems involving similar inequalities
USEFUL FOR

Mathematicians, students studying number theory, educators teaching mathematical proofs, and anyone interested in advanced mathematical inequalities.

anemone
Gold Member
MHB
POTW Director
Messages
3,851
Reaction score
115
Here is this week's POTW:

-----

Prove that $n^{n+1}>(n+1)^n$ for all $n\ge 3$ and $n\in \Bbb{N}$.

-----

Remember to read the http://www.mathhelpboards.com/showthread.php?772-Problem-of-the-Week-%28POTW%29-Procedure-and-Guidelines to find out how to http://www.mathhelpboards.com/forms.php?do=form&fid=2!
 
Physics news on Phys.org
Congratulations to the following members for their correct solution:

1. castor28
2. kaliprasad

Solution from castor28:
As the relation is obviously satisfied for $n=3$, we will prove the result by showing that the LHS grows faster than the RHS. We will allow $n$ to take any real value greater than or equal to 3. According to usual convention, we will write $x$ instead of $n$, and we will assume that $x\ge3$.

Because $\ln$ is an increasing function, we may take logarithms, and we must prove that:
$$h(x) = (x+1)\ln(x) - x\ln(x+1) > 0\qquad[1]$$
for $x\ge3$.

Differentiating, we get:
$$h'(x) = \ln(x) + \frac{x+1}{x} - \ln(x+1) - \frac{x}{x+1}$$
We note that $h'(x)\to0$ when $x\to\infty$. We now compute the second derivative:
$$\begin{align*}
h''(x) &= \frac1x + \frac1x -\frac{x+1}{x^2} - \frac{1}{x+1} - \frac{1}{x+1} + \frac{x}{(x+1)^2}\\
&= \frac2x -\frac{x+1}{x^2}- \frac{2}{x+1}+ \frac{x}{(x+1)^2}\\
&= -\frac{x^2+x+1}{x^4+2x^3+x^2}\\
&= -\frac{x^2+x+1}{x^2(x+1)^2}
\end{align*}
$$
As the numerator has no real root, this shows that $h''(x)<0$, i.e., $h'(x)$ is a decreasing function. As $h'(x)\to0$ when $x\to\infty$, $h'(x)>0$ and $h(x)$ is an increasing function.

As $h(3) = 4\ln(3)-3\ln(4)\approx 0.235>0$, this implies that $h(x)>0$ for $x\ge3$; this is the relation [1] that we needed to prove.

Alternative Solution:
From the formula $$(1+x)^n=1+\frac{nx}{1!}+\frac{n(n-1)x^2}{2!}+\frac{n(n-1)(n-2)x^3}{3!}+\cdots$$, if we replace $x$ by $$\frac{1}{n}$$ we get

$$\left(1+\dfrac{1}{n}\right)^n\le 1+\frac{1}{1!}+\frac{1}{2!}+\frac{1}{3!}+\cdots\le 1+1+\dfrac{1}{2}+\dfrac{1}{2^2}+\dfrac{1}{3}+\cdots=3\le n$$

$\therefore n^{n+1}>(n+1)^n$ for $n\ge 3$ where $n\in \Bbb{N}$.
 

Similar threads

Replies
1
Views
2K
Replies
1
Views
2K
Replies
1
Views
3K
  • · Replies 1 ·
Replies
1
Views
5K
  • · Replies 1 ·
Replies
1
Views
5K
  • · Replies 1 ·
Replies
1
Views
3K
  • · Replies 1 ·
Replies
1
Views
3K
  • · Replies 1 ·
Replies
1
Views
3K
  • · Replies 1 ·
Replies
1
Views
2K
Replies
2
Views
2K