Dismiss Notice
Join Physics Forums Today!
The friendliest, high quality science and math community on the planet! Everyone who loves science is here!

Ker(phi) = {0}, then phi injective?

  1. Aug 18, 2008 #1
    Hi all,

    Can anyone point to an explanation of why if ker(phi) = {0}, then phi is injective?
  2. jcsd
  3. Aug 18, 2008 #2


    User Avatar
    Science Advisor
    Homework Helper

    Is "phi" a linear map?

    Suppose that phi(x) = phi(y), and use some properties of linear maps to show that x = y.
Know someone interested in this topic? Share this thread via Reddit, Google+, Twitter, or Facebook

Similar Discussions: Ker(phi) = {0}, then phi injective?
  1. Phi is irrational (Replies: 15)

  2. PHI Function (Replies: 6)

  3. Symbol phi (Replies: 2)