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Ker(phi) = {0}, then phi injective?

  1. Aug 18, 2008 #1
    Hi all,

    Can anyone point to an explanation of why if ker(phi) = {0}, then phi is injective?
  2. jcsd
  3. Aug 18, 2008 #2


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    Is "phi" a linear map?

    Suppose that phi(x) = phi(y), and use some properties of linear maps to show that x = y.
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