1. Not finding help here? Sign up for a free 30min tutor trial with Chegg Tutors
    Dismiss Notice
Dismiss Notice
Join Physics Forums Today!
The friendliest, high quality science and math community on the planet! Everyone who loves science is here!

Ker(phi) = {0}, then phi injective?

  1. Aug 18, 2008 #1
    Hi all,

    Can anyone point to an explanation of why if ker(phi) = {0}, then phi is injective?
     
  2. jcsd
  3. Aug 18, 2008 #2

    CompuChip

    User Avatar
    Science Advisor
    Homework Helper

    Is "phi" a linear map?

    Suppose that phi(x) = phi(y), and use some properties of linear maps to show that x = y.
     
Know someone interested in this topic? Share this thread via Reddit, Google+, Twitter, or Facebook

Have something to add?



Similar Discussions: Ker(phi) = {0}, then phi injective?
  1. Phi is irrational (Replies: 15)

  2. PHI Function (Replies: 6)

  3. Symbol phi (Replies: 2)

Loading...