Ker(phi) = {0}, then phi injective?

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SUMMARY

If the kernel of a linear map phi, denoted as ker(phi), is equal to the zero vector space {0}, then phi is injective. This conclusion follows from the definition of injectivity, which states that if phi(x) = phi(y), then it must hold that x = y. The properties of linear maps ensure that the only solution to the equation phi(x) = phi(y) is when x equals y, confirming the injective nature of phi.

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  • Understanding of linear maps and their properties
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  • Knowledge of injective functions and their definitions
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Hi all,

Can anyone point to an explanation of why if ker(phi) = {0}, then phi is injective?
 
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Is "phi" a linear map?

Suppose that phi(x) = phi(y), and use some properties of linear maps to show that x = y.
 

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