Something has been bothering me for a while and I hope to get many productive answers. Heres the question: if a physical theory is mathematically equivalent with another physical theory (eg. the different mathematical formulations of quantum mechanics), does it mean that the theory also physically equivalent with the other theory? The obvious answer seems to be "yes", but then we seem to have another problem concerning reality itself: All the interpretations of quantum mechanics are based on the same mathematics. But if they are mathematically equivalent and therefore physically equivalent, does it mean that they describe the same physical behaviour of reality? In other words: could you consider it to be possible that all the interpretations of quantum mechanics are just different point of views of the same, "correct", interpretation?