MHB Problem of the Week #120 - July 14th, 2014

  • Thread starter Thread starter Chris L T521
  • Start date Start date
Click For Summary
The problem presented is to show that \(2\sqrt{3}\sum_{n=0}^{\infty}\frac{(-1)^n}{(2n+1)3^n} = \pi\). The solution involves expressing the series in terms of the Maclaurin series for the inverse tangent function. By substituting \(x = \frac{1}{\sqrt{3}}\) into the series, it simplifies to \(S = 6\tan^{-1}\left(\frac{1}{\sqrt{3}}\right)\). This leads to the conclusion that \(S = \pi\), confirming the original statement. The problem effectively showcases the relationship between series and trigonometric functions.
Chris L T521
Gold Member
MHB
Messages
913
Reaction score
0
Here's this week's problem!

-----

Problem: Show that $2\sqrt{3}\displaystyle\sum_{n=0}^{\infty}\frac{(-1)^n}{(2n+1)3^n} = \pi$.

-----

Hint: [sp]Use the power series for $\arctan x$.[/sp]

Remember to read the http://www.mathhelpboards.com/showthread.php?772-Problem-of-the-Week-%28POTW%29-Procedure-and-Guidelines to find out how to http://www.mathhelpboards.com/forms.php?do=form&fid=2!
 
Physics news on Phys.org
This week's problem was correctly answered by Euge, Kiwi and MarkFL. You can find Mark's solution below.

[sp]Let:

$$S=2\sqrt{3}\sum_{n=0}^{\infty}\frac{(-1)^n}{(2n+1)3^n}=6\sum_{n=0}^{\infty}\frac{(-1)^n}{(2n+1)}\left(\frac{1}{\sqrt{3}}\right)^{2n+1}$$

Using the Maclaurin series for the inverse tangent function, we may now state:

$$S=6\tan^{-1}\left(\frac{1}{\sqrt{3}}\right)=6\cdot\frac{\pi}{6}=\pi$$

Hence, we may conclude:

$$2\sqrt{3}\sum_{n=0}^{\infty}\frac{(-1)^n}{(2n+1)3^n}=\pi$$[/sp]
 

Similar threads

  • · Replies 1 ·
Replies
1
Views
2K
  • · Replies 1 ·
Replies
1
Views
2K
  • · Replies 1 ·
Replies
1
Views
2K
Replies
1
Views
2K
  • · Replies 1 ·
Replies
1
Views
2K
Replies
1
Views
1K
  • · Replies 1 ·
Replies
1
Views
2K
Replies
1
Views
2K
  • · Replies 1 ·
Replies
1
Views
2K
  • · Replies 1 ·
Replies
1
Views
2K