Proof: Palindromes Divisible by 11

  • Thread starter Thread starter Math100
  • Start date Start date
  • Tags Tags
    Proof
AI Thread Summary
Any palindrome with an even number of digits can be expressed in a specific decimal format, leading to a calculation of T, which represents the alternating sum of its digits. Since the digits of a palindrome are symmetric, T simplifies to zero, demonstrating that T is divisible by 11. Consequently, this implies that the palindrome itself is also divisible by 11. The proof highlights the importance of the structure of palindromes in establishing divisibility. Thus, it concludes that all even-digit palindromes are divisible by 11.
Math100
Messages
813
Reaction score
229
Homework Statement
A palindrome is a number that reads the same backward as forward (for instance, ## 373 ## and ## 521125 ## are palindromes). Prove that any palindrome with an even number of digits is divisible by ## 11 ##.
Relevant Equations
None.
Proof:

Suppose ## N ## is a palindrome with an even number of digits.
Let ## N=a_{m}10^{m}+\dotsb +a_{2}10^{2}+a_{1}10+a_{0} ##, where ## 0\leq a_{k}\leq 9 ##, be the
decimal expansion of a positive integer ## N ##, and let ## T=a_{0}-a_{1}+a_{2}-\dotsb +(-1)^{m}a_{m} ##.
Note that ## m ## is odd.
Then ## N=a_{0}10^{m}+\dotsb +a_{m-1}10+a_{m} ##.
This means ## a_{i}=a_{m-i} ## for ## 0\leq i\leq m ##.
Since ## m ## is odd, it follows that ## T=(a_{0}-a_{m})+(a_{2}-a_{m-1})+\dotsb +(a_{m-1}-a_{1})\implies 0+0+\dotsb +0=0 ##.
Thus ## 11\mid T\implies 11\mid N ##.
Therefore, any palindrome with an even number of digits is divisible by ## 11 ##.
 
  • Like
Likes Delta2 and fresh_42
Physics news on Phys.org
Looks ok, except that it is better to write at the end
... ## T=(a_{0}-a_{m})+(a_{2}-a_{m-1})+\dotsb +(a_{m-1}-a_{1})= 0+0+\dotsb +0=0 ##.
with an equality sign instead of an implication sign.
 
  • Like
Likes Delta2 and Math100
I tried to combine those 2 formulas but it didn't work. I tried using another case where there are 2 red balls and 2 blue balls only so when combining the formula I got ##\frac{(4-1)!}{2!2!}=\frac{3}{2}## which does not make sense. Is there any formula to calculate cyclic permutation of identical objects or I have to do it by listing all the possibilities? Thanks
Essentially I just have this problem that I'm stuck on, on a sheet about complex numbers: Show that, for ##|r|<1,## $$1+r\cos(x)+r^2\cos(2x)+r^3\cos(3x)...=\frac{1-r\cos(x)}{1-2r\cos(x)+r^2}$$ My first thought was to express it as a geometric series, where the real part of the sum of the series would be the series you see above: $$1+re^{ix}+r^2e^{2ix}+r^3e^{3ix}...$$ The sum of this series is just: $$\frac{(re^{ix})^n-1}{re^{ix} - 1}$$ I'm having some trouble trying to figure out what to...
Back
Top