Prove that ## a^{4}\equiv 0 ## or ## 1\pmod {5} ##?

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For any integer a, it has been proven that a^4 is congruent to either 0 or 1 modulo 5. The proof utilizes the fact that integers can be expressed as congruent to 0, 1, 2, 3, or 4 modulo 5, leading to the conclusion that a^4 modulo 5 results in 0 or 1. Additionally, it is noted that if 5 does not divide a, then a^4 is congruent to 1 modulo 5. This discussion also raises a related question about the congruence of n^(p-1) modulo p when p is prime and does not divide n. The findings confirm the original assertion regarding the behavior of a^4 under modulo 5 conditions.
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Homework Statement
Prove the assertion below:
For any integer ## a ##, ## a^{4}\equiv 0 ## or ## 1\pmod {5} ##.
Relevant Equations
None.
Proof:

Let ## a ## be any integer.
Then ## a\equiv 0, 1, 2, 3 ## or ## 4\pmod {5} ##.
Note that ## a\equiv b\pmod {n}\implies a^{4}\equiv b^{4}\pmod {n} ##.
This means ## a^{4}\equiv 0, 1, 16, 81 ## or ## 256\pmod {5}\implies a^{4}\equiv 0, 1, 1, 1 ## or ## 1\pmod {5} ##.
Thus ## a^{4}\equiv 0 ## or ## 1\pmod {5} ##.
Therefore, ## a^{4}\equiv 0 ## or ## 1\pmod {5} ## for any integer ## a ##.
 
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Math100 said:
Homework Statement:: Prove the assertion below:
For any integer ## a ##, ## a^{4}\equiv 0 ## or ## 1\pmod {5} ##.
Relevant Equations:: None.

Proof:

Let ## a ## be any integer.
Then ## a\equiv 0, 1, 2, 3 ## or ## 4\pmod {5} ##.
Note that ## a\equiv b\pmod {n}\implies a^{4}\equiv b^{4}\pmod {n} ##.
This means ## a^{4}\equiv 0, 1, 16, 81 ## or ## 256\pmod {5}\implies a^{4}\equiv 0, 1, 1, 1 ## or ## 1\pmod {5} ##.
Thus ## a^{4}\equiv 0 ## or ## 1\pmod {5} ##.
Therefore, ## a^{4}\equiv 0 ## or ## 1\pmod {5} ## for any integer ## a ##.
You have shown even more: ##a^4\equiv 1 \pmod 5## whenever ##5\nmid a.##
 
fresh_42 said:
You have shown even more: ##a^4\equiv 1 \pmod 5## whenever ##5\nmid a.##
… which directly brings us to the following question that the OP might want to attempt to answer:

If p is prime and ##p \nmid n##, does ##n^{p-1} \equiv 1 \pmod p##?
 
Last edited:
I tried to combine those 2 formulas but it didn't work. I tried using another case where there are 2 red balls and 2 blue balls only so when combining the formula I got ##\frac{(4-1)!}{2!2!}=\frac{3}{2}## which does not make sense. Is there any formula to calculate cyclic permutation of identical objects or I have to do it by listing all the possibilities? Thanks

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