Proving Irreducible Markov Chains not Martingales

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SUMMARY

An irreducible Markov chain on a finite state space cannot be a Martingale due to the requirement that E(S_{n+1}|S_n) = S_n. Specifically, if S_n = 0, then E(S_{n+1}|S_n=0) must equal 0, necessitating P(S_{n+1}=0|S_n=0)=1, which contradicts the irreducibility condition. In contrast, Markov chains with infinite state spaces can satisfy the Martingale condition by allowing for non-trivial conditional distributions. The discussion highlights the importance of state space characteristics in determining the properties of stochastic processes.

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Edwinkumar
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Can someone prove that an irreducible markov chain on a finite state space {0,1,...,m} is not a Martingale?
 
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Well, if S_n is some irreduceable Markov chain with finite state space. For it to also be a Martingale would require E(S_{n+1}|S_n) = S_n. Consider the case where S_n = 0. Then the Martingale condition would be E(S_{n+1}|S_n=0) = 0, which would require that P(S_{n+1}=0|S_n=0)=1, which violates the assumption of irreducibility. So, an irreducible Markov Chain with finite state space cannot be a Martingale.

Notice that this is not the case for Markov Chains with infinite state spaces. Since there is no "edge" to the state space, it's easy to construct non-trivial conditional distributions with the required expected values, which then gives an irreducible chain. Can you think of an example?
 
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Thank you very much for your reply.
quadraphonics said:
Consider the case where S_n = 0. Then the Martingale condition would be E(S_{n+1}|S_n=0) = 0, which would require that P(S_{n+1}=0|S_n=0)=1, which violates the assumption of irreducibility.

Why do you assume that S_n = 0. Moreover why is P(S_{n+1}=0|S_n=0)=1?

quadraphonics said:
Since there is no "edge" to the state space, it's easy to construct non-trivial conditional distributions with the required expected values, which then gives an irreducible chain. Can you think of an example?

I don't understand what do you mean by 'no "edge" to the state space'.
 
I'm confused too. I understand the Martingale condition, but why must that imply P(S_{n+1} = 0| S_{n} = 0) = 1?

If P(S_{n+1} = -1 | S_{n} = 0) = 0.5 and P(S_{n+1} = 1 | S_{n} = 0) = 0.5 then the Martingale condition still holds because the expected value is still 0. Is this right or am I missing something?
 
Boxcar Billy said:
If P(S_{n+1} = -1 | S_{n} = 0) = 0.5 and P(S_{n+1} = 1 | S_{n} = 0) = 0.5 then the Martingale condition still holds because the expected value is still 0. Is this right or am I missing something?

The issue is that S_{n+1}=-1 is not in the state space, which, remember, consists of \{0, ... , m\}. If the state-space is infinite, then your approach would always work, as there would always be valid parts of the state space both above and below the current state. But for a finite state space, it's impossible to construct non-trivial conditional distributions for S_n=0 and S_n=m that satisfy the Martingale condition.
 
BTW, the Markov Chain with countable state space and transition probability P(S_{n+1}=s+1|S_n = s) = P(S_{n+1}=s-1|S_n = s)=1/2 is the (discrete, symmetric) Random Walk, which is a classic example of a martingale.
 
Mr.quadraphonics, I have just started learning Martingales in the classical way(i.e. measure theoretic).
The definition for a sequence of integrable random variables S_n to be a Martingale with respect to a filtration \mathcal{F}_n, if (1) S_n is \mathcal{F}_n measurable and (2) E[S_{n+1}|\mathcal{F}_n]=S_n.

My questions to you are the following:
1) How can you assume that S_n=0?
2) How can you condition S_n instead of \mathcal{F}_n?
3) Moreover, can you define some stopping time \tau so that the stopped process is a Martingale?

Thank you very much for all your replies.
 
Edwinkumar said:
1) How can you assume that S_n=0?

The irreducibility condition on a Markov Chain is that you can start to any state and, given some finite number of steps, it's possible to get to any state. So, to prove that a Markov Chian is NOT irreducible (which is what we're doing here), you only have to exhibit a single state from which it is not possible to get to some other state. I chose S_n = 0, since I happen to know that this is such a state (S_n=m will also work, for the same reasons).

Edwinkumar said:
2) How can you condition S_n instead of \mathcal{F}_n?

That's basically a shorthand. The underlying, general definition of the martingale works in terms of filtrations, but we sometimes abbreviate this by instead referring to a random variable defined on the same \sigma-algebra. If you're taking a measure-theoretic probability class, they'll probably cover this issue explicitly.

Edwinkumar said:
3) Moreover, can you define some stopping time \tau so that the stopped process is a Martingale?

A stopping time with respect to what stochastic process? A finite-state Markov Chain? Or a martingale?
 
quadraphonics said:
A stopping time with respect to what stochastic process? A finite-state Markov Chain? Or a martingale?
With respect to the finite state irreducible markov chain.

quadraphonics said:
Notice that this is not the case for Markov Chains with infinite state spaces. Since there is no "edge" to the state space, it's easy to construct non-trivial conditional distributions with the required expected values, which then gives an irreducible chain. Can you think of an example?

I don't understand why is it not working in case of a an irreducible Markov chain with infinite state space. Can you please explain to me?
Thanks.
 
  • #10
Edwinkumar said:
With respect to the finite state irreducible markov chain.

Maybe \sum_{i=0}^{n}S_i/n would work?

Edwinkumar said:
I don't understand why is it not working in case of a an irreducible Markov chain with infinite state space. Can you please explain to me?

Well, if the state space if (doubly) infinite: S_n \in \mathbb{Z}, then the Random Walk construction mentioned in the previous posts is both an irreducible Markov Chain and a martingle. The Random Walk, recall, is when the transition matrix for the Markov Chain is given by P(S_{n+1}=s+1|S_n=s)=P(S_{n+1}=s-1|S_n=s)=0.5.
 
  • #11
quadraphonics said:
Maybe \sum_{i=0}^{n}S_i/n would work?[/itex].
No! I want a stopping time(an integer valued random variable) \tau for my finite state irreducible markov chain S_n such that the stopped process S_{\tau \wedge n} is a Martingale.
 
  • #12
What about a random walk that then stops when it hits either 0 or m?
 
  • #13
Do you mean either \tau=0 or \tau=m?
Moreover, can you give an example of a Martingale which is not a Markov chain?
 
  • #14
Edwinkumar said:
Do you mean either \tau=0 or \tau=m?

No, \tau will be whatever time step S_n first equals either 0 or m.

Edwinkumar said:
Moreover, can you give an example of a Martingale which is not a Markov chain?

Do you mean specifically a discrete-time, finite-state martingale that is not a first-order Markov chain?
 
  • #15
quadraphonics said:
No, \tau will be whatever time step S_n first equals either 0 or m.

Do you mean \tau(\omega)=min\{n: S_n(\omega)=0 or S_n(\omega)=m\}?
 
  • #16
Edwinkumar said:
Do you mean \tau(\omega)=min\{n: S_n(\omega)=0 or S_n(\omega)=m\}?

Indeed.
 
  • #17
Thank you very much quadraphonics.
One final question.
Can you prove that the stopped process Y_n=X_{\tau \wedge n}, where \tau(\omega)=min\{n: S_n(\omega)=0 or S_n(\omega)=m\} is a martingale w.r.to the natural filtration \mathcal{F}_n=\sigma(X_0, X_1,..., X_n)
 
  • #18
Edwinkumar said:
Thank you very much quadraphonics.
One final question.
Can you prove that the stopped process Y_n=X_{\tau \wedge n}, where \tau(\omega)=min\{n: S_n(\omega)=0 or S_n(\omega)=m\} is a martingale w.r.to the natural filtration \mathcal{F}_n=\sigma(X_0, X_1,..., X_n)

Yes, it's a straightforward application of the material I've already presented in this thread. Just show that the proposed stopped Markov Chain satisfies the martingale properties.
 

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