MHB Proving ${\psi}_{n}(x)\le F(n)$ by Induction

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The discussion focuses on proving by induction that ${\psi}_{n}(x) \le F(n)$ for $x \in [a, b]$. The user establishes a base case for $n=1$, confirming that ${\psi}_{1}(x) \le f(x,1) \le F(1)$. They also demonstrate that if ${\psi}_{n}(x) \le f(x,n)$ holds, then it follows that ${\psi}_{n+1}(x) \le F(n+1)$. The user seeks clarification on whether this implies that ${\psi}_{n}(x) \le F(n)$ is valid. Definitions for ${\psi}_n$, $F$, $a$, and $b$ are requested to further the discussion.
sarrah1
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Hello

is my proof be correct ?

I wish to prove by induction that ${\psi}_{n}(x)\le F(n)$ , $x\in[a,b]$ ... (1)

Let there exists a function $f(x,n)$ such that if ${\psi}_{n}(x)\le f(x,n) $ then ${\psi}_{n}(x) \le F(n)$ .

I know that (1) is true for $n=1$ i.e. ${\psi}_{1}(x)\le f(x,1)\le F(1)$ ,

and I was able to prove that

${\psi}_{n+1}(x)\le F(n+1)$ , $x\in[a,b]$

would this implies ${\psi}_{n}(x)\le F(n)$

thanks
 
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sarrah said:
I wish to prove by induction that ${\psi}_{n}(x)\le F(n)$ , $x\in[a,b]$
Please provide the definitions of $\psi_n$, $F$, $a$ and $b$.
 
Greetings, I am studying probability theory [non-measure theory] from a textbook. I stumbled to the topic stating that Cauchy Distribution has no moments. It was not proved, and I tried working it via direct calculation of the improper integral of E[X^n] for the case n=1. Anyhow, I wanted to generalize this without success. I stumbled upon this thread here: https://www.physicsforums.com/threads/how-to-prove-the-cauchy-distribution-has-no-moments.992416/ I really enjoyed the proof...

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