Quantum Mechanics and Dialectics

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Quantum Mechanics (QM) describes the behavior of particles at the atomic and subatomic levels, emphasizing that we can only observe measurements rather than the underlying wave function itself. Dialectical Materialism (DM) posits that there is a material reality that serves as the foundation for all experiences and phenomena. The connection between QM and DM may lie in the idea that the material reality in DM could be analogous to the wave function in QM. Some participants express skepticism about the relationship between the two concepts, indicating a lack of clarity in existing explanations. Overall, the discussion highlights the need for clearer interpretations of how quantum mechanics might support dialectical materialism.
roam
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Since I've started to study dialectical materialism, I've often heard the claim that Quantum Mechanics kind of "proves" diamat, however, I've never found an explanation of this that I was able to understand (I suck at physics).

So, could somebody a) explain very briefly what quantum mechanics is in the first place, and b) explain what it has to do with diamat please?
 
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roam said:
Since I've started to study dialectical materialism, I've often heard the claim that Quantum Mechanics kind of "proves" diamat, however, I've never found an explanation of this that I was able to understand (I suck at physics).

I suggest you post one of those explanations you don't understand, there are plenty of people here who could tell you if the explanation makes sense. Quite frankly, I don't see how the two are related, but I'm no expert on Marx.
 
roam said:
Since I've started to study dialectical materialism, I've often heard the claim that Quantum Mechanics kind of "proves" diamat, however, I've never found an explanation of this that I was able to understand (I suck at physics).

So, could somebody a) explain very briefly what quantum mechanics is in the first place, and b) explain what it has to do with diamat please?

QM models the world as an unseen thing described by a wave function. We can only see measurements not the wave function itself. DM assumes an underlying material reality that is the background to all experience and all phenomena. Perhaps this is the connection, material reality is the wave function.
 
Time reversal invariant Hamiltonians must satisfy ##[H,\Theta]=0## where ##\Theta## is time reversal operator. However, in some texts (for example see Many-body Quantum Theory in Condensed Matter Physics an introduction, HENRIK BRUUS and KARSTEN FLENSBERG, Corrected version: 14 January 2016, section 7.1.4) the time reversal invariant condition is introduced as ##H=H^*##. How these two conditions are identical?

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