Show that Pv(Qv~P) is always true whatever the values of p and q

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around the logical expression Pv(Qv~P) and the task of demonstrating its truth regardless of the truth values of p and q. This falls within the subject area of propositional logic.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Conceptual clarification, Mathematical reasoning

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants attempt to manipulate the expression using logical identities and explore the implications of the associative property of disjunction. Questions arise regarding the simplification steps and the interpretation of the expression's truth value.

Discussion Status

The discussion is ongoing, with participants providing various attempts at simplification and clarification. Some guidance has been offered regarding the logical identities involved, but there is no explicit consensus on the final interpretation or simplification of the expression.

Contextual Notes

Participants are navigating the complexities of logical disjunction and its properties, with some expressing confusion over specific steps and identities. There is an emphasis on understanding the implications of the expression rather than arriving at a definitive conclusion.

lionely
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Homework Statement


Show that Pv(Qv~P) is always true whatever the values of p and q.


Attempt

Pv(Qv~P)
(PvQ) v (Pv~P)
(PvQ) v T
 
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lionely said:

Homework Statement


Show that Pv(Qv~P) is always true whatever the values of p and q.


Attempt

Pv(Qv~P)
(PvQ) v (Pv~P)
The step above is incorrect. The logical disjunction operator (V) is associative, with P V (Q V R) <==> (P V Q) V R
lionely said:
(PvQ) v T
 


So.. it should it be P V (Q V ~P) = (~P V P) V Q?
 


So is it T V Q?
 


lionely said:
So.. it should it be P V (Q V ~P) = (~P V P) V Q?
Yes. Can you give reasons for each step? (There are a couple.)

lionely said:
So is it T V Q?
That's not the final, simplified expression. What does that simplify to?
 


Oh Umm because (~P V P) = T

hence T V Q

I think there is an indentity for P = T.. so p V q?
 


lionely said:
Oh Umm because (~P V P) = T

hence T V Q
You're not done.

Show that Pv(Qv~P) is always true[/color] whatever the values of p and q.

The part in red should have been a clue as to what you should conclude.


T V <whatever> ⇔ T
lionely said:
I think there is an indentity for P = T.. so p V q?
 
Last edited by a moderator:


I don't see what's in red. I'm sorry :(
 


but isn't it P V Q = T ? Since it's "OR" it's either one or the other or both?
 
  • #10


lionely said:
I don't see what's in red. I'm sorry :(
I fixed the tag in Mark's post, so you can see now what he intended.

lionely said:
but isn't it P V Q = T ? Since it's "OR" it's either one or the other or both?
No, look at the truth table for ⋁. If both P and Q are false, then P⋁Q is false.
 

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