Show that the function is 1-1 and onto

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SUMMARY

The discussion centers on proving that if a function \( f: A \to B \) is both one-to-one (1-1) and onto, then its inverse \( f^{-1}: B \to A \) is also one-to-one and onto. The participants confirm that for distinct elements \( y_1, y_2 \in B \), the condition \( f^{-1}(y_1) \neq f^{-1}(y_2) \) holds true, establishing the one-to-one nature of the inverse function. Additionally, they clarify that since \( f \) is onto, \( f^{-1}(y) \) is non-empty and uniquely defined for each \( y \in B \).

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  • Study the properties of bijective functions and their inverses.
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evinda
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Hi! (Smile)

I want to prove that, if $f: A \xrightarrow[\text{onto}]{\text{1-1}} B$, then $f^{-1}: B \xrightarrow[\text{onto}]{\text{1-1}} A$.

That's what I have tried:

Let $x,y \in dom(f)$, with $x \neq y$.
Then, since $f:\text{ 1-1 }$, we have that $f(x) \neq f(y)$.
Also, since $f: \text{ onto } $, $\forall b \in B,\exists x$, such that $b=f(x)$.

Is it right so far?

We want to show that, if $y_1,y_2 \in B$, with $y_1 \neq y_2$, then $f^{-1}(y_1) \neq f^{-1}(y_2)$ and that $\forall x \in A, \exists d$, such that $f^{-1}(x)=d$, right?

If so, how could we show this? :confused:
 
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Hi,

It's correct except the last equality, $$f^{-1}$$ should be applied in the rhs.

Given $$y \in B$$ and the condition f onto implies that $$f^{-1}(y) $$ is non empty, and 1-1 implies that $$f^{-1}(y)$$ is just one point so the inverse of f is well defined.

Try to reverse this argumentation.
 

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