Solve the Euler Totient Puzzle: Find k such that phi(k+n)=0 mod 79

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SUMMARY

The discussion focuses on solving the Euler Totient Puzzle by finding a number k such that phi(k+n) is congruent to 0 modulo 79 for n ranging from 0 to 79. The solution involves selecting 80 primes of the form 79n+1 and applying the Chinese Remainder Theorem to establish a system of congruences. Each prime p_n divides k+n, ensuring that phi(k+n) is divisible by 79. The participants acknowledge the necessity of proof to confirm the existence of such a k for every odd prime n.

PREREQUISITES
  • Understanding of Euler's Totient Function (phi)
  • Familiarity with modular arithmetic
  • Knowledge of the Chinese Remainder Theorem
  • Basic concepts of prime numbers and arithmetic sequences
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  • Learn about the Chinese Remainder Theorem and its applications
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Mathematicians, number theorists, and students interested in modular arithmetic and prime number theory will benefit from this discussion.

Gaussianheart
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Let n=79
phi is Euler totient

Can you find a number k such as :

phi(k)=0 mod 79
phi(k+1)=0 mod 79
phi(k+2)=0 mod 79
phi(k+3)=0 mod 79
...
phi(k+78)=0 mod 79
phi(k+79)=0 mod 79

Good luck!
 
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Since there are infinite primes in any[*] arithmetic sequence, I'd choose 80 primes, call them p0 to p79, of the form 79n+1.

Next, use the Chinese Remainder Theorem to find a solution 'k' of the system of 80 congruences [itex]k \equiv -n \pmod {p_n}[/itex] with n=0,1,2,...79.

It follows that p0 divides k, p1 divides k+1, ... and p79 divides k+79. Then each (pn-1) will divide each phi(k+n); and since all primes were a multiple of 79 plus 1, each phi(k+n) will be divisible by 79, as required.

--
Edit:
[*] Well, not any, but you get the idea.
 
Last edited:
Dodo said:
Since there are infinite primes in any[*] arithmetic sequence, I'd choose 80 primes, call them p0 to p79, of the form 79n+1.

Next, use the Chinese Remainder Theorem to find a solution 'k' of the system of 80 congruences [itex]k \equiv -n \pmod {p_n}[/itex] with n=0,1,2,...79.

It follows that p0 divides k, p1 divides k+1, ... and p79 divides k+79. Then each (pn-1) will divide each phi(k+n); and since all primes were a multiple of 79 plus 1, each phi(k+n) will be divisible by 79, as required.

--
Edit:
[*] Well, not any, but you get the idea.

You are right.
Thanx for your solution.
Anyway it does not mean that it ALWAYS exists k for every n odd prime.
Proof is needed.
 

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