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I guess this would be an elementary number theory question, but it's in Advanced Algebra by Rotman, so I figured it would go here. I apologize if it's wrong.
If p is an odd prime and a_{1},...,a_{p-1} is a permutation of 1,2,...,p-1 then there exist i \neq j with ia_{i} \equiv ja_{j} modp.
It says to use Wilson's Theorem, but I can't seem to be getting anywhere with it.
I thought that for any i we have
ia_{i} = -i(a_{1}...a_{i-1}a_{i+1}...a_{p-1})^{-1} modp by Wilson.
I figured the j=-i modp, which is not equal to i since p is odd. But I'm not sure how to show
(a_{1}...a_{i-1}a_{i+1}...a_{p-1})^{-1} = a_{-imodp}
if the assumption j=-i is even correct. Any help, please?
If p is an odd prime and a_{1},...,a_{p-1} is a permutation of 1,2,...,p-1 then there exist i \neq j with ia_{i} \equiv ja_{j} modp.
It says to use Wilson's Theorem, but I can't seem to be getting anywhere with it.
I thought that for any i we have
ia_{i} = -i(a_{1}...a_{i-1}a_{i+1}...a_{p-1})^{-1} modp by Wilson.
I figured the j=-i modp, which is not equal to i since p is odd. But I'm not sure how to show
(a_{1}...a_{i-1}a_{i+1}...a_{p-1})^{-1} = a_{-imodp}
if the assumption j=-i is even correct. Any help, please?