MHB This proves the claim.

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The discussion revolves around proving that every nonzero coefficient of the Taylor series for the function (1 - x + x^2)e^x has a rational number as its numerator, which is either 1 or a prime number. The solution provided demonstrates that for coefficients a_n, the numerator can be expressed in terms of m, where m is derived from n. Various cases are analyzed, including when m is prime, a power of a prime, or a product of distinct primes, showing that in each case, the numerator reduces to either 1 or a prime. The conclusion emphasizes that the numerator's behavior aligns with the initial claim, confirming the rationality and primality conditions. This mathematical exploration validates the assertion made in the Problem of the Week.
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Here is this week's POTW:

-----

Prove that every nonzero coefficient of the Taylor series of
\[
\left(1 - x + x^2\right) e^x
\]
about $x=0$ is a rational number whose numerator (in lowest terms) is either $1$ or a prime number.

-----

Remember to read the http://www.mathhelpboards.com/showthread.php?772-Problem-of-the-Week-%28POTW%29-Procedure-and-Guidelines to find out how to http://www.mathhelpboards.com/forms.php?do=form&fid=2!
 
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Congratulations to castor28 for his correct solution to this week's POTW, which is Problem A1 in the 2014 Putnam Archive. His solution follows:

[sp]
As the exponential series is absolutely convergent, we may multiply both series together.
If $a_n$ is the coefficient of $x^n$ in the resulting series, we have $a_0 = 1$, $a_1=0$, $a_2= \dfrac{1}{2}$. For $n>2$, we have:
$$
\begin{align*}\displaystyle
a_n &= \frac{1}{n!} - \frac{1}{(n-1)!} + \frac{1}{(n-2)!}\\
&= \frac{(n-1)^2}{n!}\\
&= \frac{n-1}{n(n-2)!}
\end{align*}
$$

and we must prove that, when this fraction is reduced to lowest terms, the numerator is $1$ or a prime number.

Writing $n = m+1$, we have:
$$\displaystyle
a_n = \frac{m}{(m+1)(m-1)!}
$$

We will write $\mathrm{N}(m)$ for the numerator of that reduced fraction. We must prove that this is $1$ or a prime.

The idea is to look at the prime divisors of $m$, and to estimate the number of occurrences of these in $(m-1)!$ to show that sufficient cancellation takes place.
We will use the well-known fact that, if $a$ and $b$ are integers with $a>1$ and $b> 0$, then $a^b > b$; furthermore, if $a>2$ or $b>2$, then we have the stronger relation $a^b > b+1$.

Case 1: $m = p$, $p$ prime

In this case, since $\gcd(p,(p-1)!) = \gcd(p, (p+1)) = 1$, no cancellation takes place and $\mathrm{N}(m)=p$.

Case 2: $m = p^k$, $p$ prime

The number of multiples of $p$ in the range $(1\dots m-1)$ is $p^{k-1}-1$. Note that these may include multiples of $p^2$, but we do not make use of this fact.
Using the fact mentioned above, we have:
$$
\begin{align*}\displaystyle
p^{k-1}&>k-1\\
p^{k-1}-1&>k-2\\
p^{k-1}-1 &\ge k-1
\end{align*}
$$
This shows that $p^{k-1}\mid (m-1)!$, and $\mathrm{N}(m)=1 \text{ or } p$.
As mentioned above, if $p>2$ or $k>2$, we have actually $p^{k-1}>k$, and $\mathrm{N}(m)=1$.
Note that case 1 is actually a particular case of this case.

Case 3: $m = qp^k$, $p$ prime, $q>1$, $\gcd(p,q)=1$

The number of multiples of $p$ in the range $(1\dots m-1)$ is $qp^{k-1}-1 > p^{k-1}-1 $. By comparison with case 2, we find that $p^k\mid (m-1)!$. As this holds for all primes that divide $m$, we conclude that $\mathrm{N}(m)=1$.

Rewriting all this in terms of $n$, the numerator of $a_n$ after reduction is:
  • $1$ for $n=0\text{ or }2$
  • $0$ for $n=1$
  • $2$ for $n=5$
  • $(n-1)$ when $(n-1)$ is prime
  • $1$ otherwise
[/sp]
 

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