MHB Trying to calculate E[(XY)^2] for X, Y ~ N(0, 1) and Cov(X, Y) = p.

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To calculate E[X²Y²] for bivariate normal random variables X and Y with Cov(X, Y) = p, the relationship E[XY] = p is established. The challenge lies in connecting E[X²Y²] to E[XY], as attempts to use variance do not simplify the problem. The bivariate normal distribution is described, and the specific parameters for this case are identified, leading to the formulation of a double integral for E[X²Y²]. The integral is complex and requires further exploration for a solution. The discussion emphasizes the difficulty of the calculation and the need for additional insights.
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Let X, Y be random variables distributed as N(0, 1) and let Cov(X, Y) = p. Calculate E[X2Y2].

I have that Cov(X, Y) = E[(X - 0)(Y - 0)] = E[XY] = p.

I have no idea how to continue on however. I can't think of a way to relate E[X2Y2] with E[XY]. I have considered the Var(XY) but that also involved E[X2Y2] and thus wouldn't help me in finding E[X2Y2].

Can someone offer a hint or two on how to proceed?
 
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oblixps said:
Let X, Y be random variables distributed as N(0, 1) and let Cov(X, Y) = p. Calculate E[X2Y2].

I have that Cov(X, Y) = E[(X - 0)(Y - 0)] = E[XY] = p.

I have no idea how to continue on however. I can't think of a way to relate E[X2Y2] with E[XY]. I have considered the Var(XY) but that also involved E[X2Y2] and thus wouldn't help me in finding E[X2Y2].

Can someone offer a hint or two on how to proceed?

In general a bivariate normal distribution is written as...

$\displaystyle f_{X,Y} (x,y) = \frac{1}{2\ \pi\ \sigma_{X}\ \sigma_{Y}\ \sqrt{1 - \rho^{2}}}\ e^{- \frac{z}{2\ (1-\rho^{2})}}\ (1)$

... where...

$\displaystyle z = \frac{(x - \mu_{X})^{2}}{\sigma_{X}^{2}} - 2\ \frac{\rho\ (x - \mu_{X})\ (y - \mu_{Y})}{\sigma_{X}\ \sigma{Y}} + \frac{(y - \mu_{Y})^{2}}{\sigma_{Y}^{2}}\ (2)$

$\displaystyle \rho= \text{cor}\ (X,Y) = \frac{V_{X,Y}}{\sigma_{X}\ \sigma_{Y}}\ (3)$

In Your case is $\mu_{X}=\mu_{Y}=0$, $\sigma_{X} = \sigma_{y} = 1$, $V_{X,Y}= \rho= p$ , so that it should be...

$\displaystyle E\ \{X^{2}\ Y^{2} \} = \frac{1}{2\ \pi\ \sqrt{1 - p^{2}}}\ \int_{- \infty}^{+ \infty} \int_{- \infty}^{+ \infty} x^{2}\ y^{2}\ e^{- \frac{x^{2} - 2\ p\ x\ y + y^{2}}{2\ (1-p^{2})}}\ d y\ d x\ (4) $

The solution of the integral (4) is not so easy and it is delayed in next posts...

Kind regards

$\chi$ $\sigma$
 
If there are an infinite number of natural numbers, and an infinite number of fractions in between any two natural numbers, and an infinite number of fractions in between any two of those fractions, and an infinite number of fractions in between any two of those fractions, and an infinite number of fractions in between any two of those fractions, and... then that must mean that there are not only infinite infinities, but an infinite number of those infinities. and an infinite number of those...

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