Understand of vacuum expectation

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The discussion focuses on understanding the vacuum expectation value, particularly <0|A_{mu}|0>, in the context of quantum field theory. It highlights that while this value can represent the amplitude for a photon to transition into vacuum, it also signifies the strength of the electromagnetic field in a vacuum under spontaneous gauge symmetry breaking. The participants clarify that in such cases, the equilibrium value of the field is not zero, leading to a non-zero vacuum expectation value. The conversation emphasizes the distinction between transition probability amplitudes and measurable quantities, noting that the latter can be derived from the square modulus of these complex numbers. Ultimately, the vacuum expectation value reflects both the equilibrium field value and the contributions from quantum fluctuations.
wangyi
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Hello,
I have difficulty understanding the vacuum expectation:
consider <0|A_{mu}|0>, we can understand it as the
possibility ampitude of a photon turn into vacuum(although 0 in common),
but in the spontaneous of gauge symmetry, we should understand
<0|A_{mu}|0> as the strength of a electromagnetic field at vacuum.
How can I arrive at this explanation?
 
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Calculate the ground state of a harmonic oscillator and yu will see it isn't zero.
 
Kruger said:
Calculate the ground state of a harmonic oscillator and yu will see it isn't zero.

But what I mean is not the zero-point energy, but the field strength itself,
for example, in electromagnetism the <state|A_{\mu}(x)|state>, does it mean the A value measured? or <state|E_{i}(x)|state>, does it mean the E value measured?
 
Generally speaking,those mathematical objects (called "transition probability amplitudes") are complex numbers,so they can't be measured in any way...Maybe their square modulus...:rolleyes:

Daniel.
 
wangyi said:
Hello,
I have difficulty understanding the vacuum expectation:
consider <0|A_{mu}|0>, we can understand it as the
possibility ampitude of a photon turn into vacuum(although 0 in common),

That's the perturbative part: the quantisation of the small field excursions around their equilibrium value (which in QED, is taken to be the zero field).

but in the spontaneous of gauge symmetry, we should understand
<0|A_{mu}|0> as the strength of a electromagnetic field at vacuum.
How can I arrive at this explanation?

Well, in spontaneous symmetry breaking, the equilibrium value of the field is not zero. So the quantum particles (perturbatively) are the excursions around THAT equilibrium value ; the vacuum expectation value will then just give you both contributions: the equilibrium field value + plus the 1-quantum-to-zero-quantum transition amplitude. But as that last one is 0, you just get the equilibrium field value.

cheers,
Patrick.
 
Time reversal invariant Hamiltonians must satisfy ##[H,\Theta]=0## where ##\Theta## is time reversal operator. However, in some texts (for example see Many-body Quantum Theory in Condensed Matter Physics an introduction, HENRIK BRUUS and KARSTEN FLENSBERG, Corrected version: 14 January 2016, section 7.1.4) the time reversal invariant condition is introduced as ##H=H^*##. How these two conditions are identical?

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