PhyAmateur Messages 103 Reaction score 2 Thread starter Jan 27, 2015 #1 If $$e^1$$ is a form like the ones in tetrad formalism (vielbeins). If we have $$e^1 . e^1$$ can we treat those as basis like $$i.i=1$$?
If $$e^1$$ is a form like the ones in tetrad formalism (vielbeins). If we have $$e^1 . e^1$$ can we treat those as basis like $$i.i=1$$?
pellman Messages 683 Reaction score 6 Jan 29, 2015 #2 I think the reason you haven't gotten any answers is that the question is unclear.