Hello,(adsbygoogle = window.adsbygoogle || []).push({});

sorry for my english..

I have a problem with weyl's spinors notation.

I'm confused, becouse i read more books (like Landau, Srednicki and Peskin) and it's seems to me that all of them use different and incompatible notations..

If i define

[itex]M=\exp\left(-\frac{1}{2}(i\theta+\beta)\sigma\right)[/itex]

as a generic lorentz transformation in left spinor rappresentation

if [itex] \psi_\alpha [/itex] represent left covariant spinor that transform with M

[itex] \psi^\alpha [/itex] represent left contravariant spinor that transform with M^(-1) right?

so how do i represent covariant and contravariant right spinor in dotted notation?

and how do they transform in connection with M matrix?

if i transform covariant left spinor with [itex]\epsilon^{\alpha\beta}[/itex] I obtain a contravariant left spinor or not?

the inner product involves dotted-dotted spinors (covariant and contravariant) or dotted-undotted spinors?

thank you :)

**Physics Forums | Science Articles, Homework Help, Discussion**

Join Physics Forums Today!

The friendliest, high quality science and math community on the planet! Everyone who loves science is here!

The friendliest, high quality science and math community on the planet! Everyone who loves science is here!

# Weyl spinor notation co/contravariant and un/dotted

**Physics Forums | Science Articles, Homework Help, Discussion**