What is the Pointwise Limit of This Sequence of Integral Functions?

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    2015
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SUMMARY

The pointwise limit of the sequence of integral functions defined by $$ f_n(x) = \int_0^{2\pi} \frac{\cos n\phi}{1 - 2x\cos \phi + x^2}\, d\phi $$ for \( 0 < x < 1 \) converges to a specific function as \( n \) approaches infinity. Both Opalg and Ackbach provided solutions to this Problem of the Week (POTW), demonstrating the application of advanced calculus techniques in evaluating the limit. Their contributions highlight the importance of understanding integral functions and convergence in mathematical analysis.

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Mathematicians, students of advanced calculus, and anyone interested in the analysis of integral functions and convergence properties will benefit from this discussion.

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Here is this week's POTW:

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Find the pointwise limit of the sequence of integral functions

$$ f_n(x) = \int_0^{2\pi} \frac{\cos n\phi}{1 - 2x\cos \phi + x^2}\, d\phi, \quad 0 < x < 1$$-----Remember to read the http://www.mathhelpboards.com/showthread.php?772-Problem-of-the-Week-%28POTW%29-Procedure-and-Guidelines to find out how to http://www.mathhelpboards.com/forms.php?do=form&fid=2!
 
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Congratulations to Opalg and Ackbach for solving this week's POTW!

Here is Opalg's solution:

Substitute $z=e^{i\phi}$. Then $\cos n\phi = \operatorname{re\,}(z^n)$, $2\cos\phi = z + z^{-1}$, $dz = ie^{i\phi}d\phi$ so that $d\phi = \frac{dz}{iz}$, and the $z$-integral is taken round the unit circle. Therefore $$f_n(x) = \operatorname{re\,} \oint \frac{z^n}{(z-x)(z^{-1}-x)} \,\frac{dz}{iz} = \operatorname{re\,}\frac1i \oint \frac{z^n}{(z-x)(1-xz)}\,dz. $$ There is only one pole inside the contour, at $z=x$, where the residue is $\dfrac{x^n}{1-x^2}$. Therefore $f_n(x) = \dfrac{2\pi x^n}{1-x^2}$, which converges pointwise to zero as $n\to\infty$, for $0<x<1$.

You can read Ackbach's solution below.

Suppose $0<x<1$. Let
$$g(\phi):=\frac{1}{1-2x\cos(\phi)+x^2}.$$
Then $g(\phi)$ is continuous on $[0,2\pi]$, since its denominator is continuous on $[0,2\pi]$ and nowhere zero, hence is Riemann integrable. By the Riemann-Lebesgue Lemma,
$$\lim_{n\to\infty}f_n(x)=0.$$
 

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