Where Does Aristotle Discuss Objects in Motion?

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SUMMARY

Aristotle's views on motion, particularly the idea that an object in motion will come to rest without an external force, are often misrepresented. This concept is not explicitly stated in his writings but is commonly inferred from his work in "Physics." The discussion highlights the theory of impetus, which was developed to explain projectile motion and evolved through contributions from figures like Hipparchus, John Philoponus, Avicenna, and Jean Buridan, leading to modern concepts of inertia and momentum.

PREREQUISITES
  • Understanding of Aristotle's "Physics"
  • Familiarity with the theory of impetus
  • Knowledge of classical mechanics concepts such as inertia and momentum
  • Basic historical context of ancient Greek philosophy
NEXT STEPS
  • Research Aristotle's "Physics" for specific references to motion
  • Study the theory of impetus and its historical development
  • Explore the contributions of John Philoponus to Aristotelian dynamics
  • Investigate the evolution of concepts of inertia and momentum from Avicenna to Buridan
USEFUL FOR

Philosophers, physics students, historians of science, and anyone interested in the evolution of motion concepts in classical mechanics.

runner108
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Oh the joys of the internet. I read everywhere that Aristotle felt that an object in motion would come to rest without any force acting on it yet no one wants to source anything. I can't find this in his writings myself though I do believe its there somewhere as it seems to be a commonly held conception about Aristotle's views. Is it something that is implied and I'm missing it or is there a specific place he talks about this? I assume it's in his Physics.

Specific references would be nice :) Thanks!
 
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runner108 said:
Oh the joys of the internet. I read everywhere that Aristotle felt that an object in motion would come to rest without any force acting on it yet no one wants to source anything. I can't find this in his writings myself though I do believe its there somewhere as it seems to be a commonly held conception about Aristotle's views. Is it something that is implied and I'm missing it or is there a specific place he talks about this? I assume it's in his Physics.

Specific references would be nice :) Thanks!

If you google on "impetus" that would find you stuff. But you also need to be aware that "what Aristotle said" has become extremely caricatured - he is fingered as the guy that got it wrong so that modern physics can be seen as the guy who now got it right.

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Theory_of_impetus

The theory of impetus was an auxiliary or secondary theory of Aristotelian dynamics, put forth initially to explain projectile motion against gravity. It was first introduced by Hipparchus in antiquity, and subsequently further developed by John Philoponus in the 6th century AD. A radically different version was later developed by Avicenna (11th century) and Jean Buridan (14th century), which became an ancestor to the concepts of inertia, momentum and acceleration in classical mechanics. In the article, the Hipparchan-Philoponan theory will be referred to as the H-P theory, while the Avicennan-Buridan theory will be referred to as the A-B theory.
 
Thanks a bunch, will look more into it now that I have a clue what I'm looking for.
 

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