Why does (Λ⁻¹)μν equal Λνμ in Lorentz transformations?

[grzz]

During my reading I met with,

(Λ^-1)^μ_ν = Λ_ν^μ ≡ η_μρΛ^ρ_ση^σν.

Is it correct to say that η raises and lowers the indices of Λ giving Λ_μ^ν, which, in turn, will give (Λ^-1)^μ_ν = Λ_μ^ν?

Thanks for any help.

 

[dextercioby]

The indices are not balanced. Check again the exact positioning.

 

[grzz]

Thanks Dextercioby for your help.
Does that mean that there is a misprint in what I read and the μ and the ν of the η must be exchanged?