Why does Quantum Mechanics have objective statistical characteristic,but does not have subjective statistical characteristic?(adsbygoogle = window.adsbygoogle || []).push({});

QM has two axioms:

1-To each dynamical variable there coresponds a linear operator,and the possible values of the dynamical variable are the eigenvalues of the operator.

2-To each state there coresponds a unique state operator.The average value of a dynamical variable r,represented by the operator R,in the virtual ensemble of events that may result from a preparation procedure for the state,represented by the operator rho,is:

<average R>=Tr(rho.R).

Can we deduce the objective statistical characteristic from these axioms?If it is so that,what does lead us to the second axiom?

**Physics Forums | Science Articles, Homework Help, Discussion**

The friendliest, high quality science and math community on the planet! Everyone who loves science is here!

# Why does Quantum Mechanics have objective statistical characteristic?

Loading...

**Physics Forums | Science Articles, Homework Help, Discussion**