Are there any non-theological (or non-http://betterexplained.com/articles/understanding-exponents-why-does-00-1/" [Broken]), non-inductive, secular answers to the question:(adsbygoogle = window.adsbygoogle || []).push({});

Why is $a^0 =1; \forall a \in \{ \mathfrak{N}, \mathfrak{R}, \mathfrak{C}\}$? Why is this always true? Are there any 'mathematical' explanations for this? Anything that does not rely on obtuse arguments? Please link me to the answer if you are aware of any resources.

(Please pardon me if I overlooked previous discussions on the topic in the forum)

Thanks!

Sid

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# Why is anything raised to the power zero, one?

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