Graduate Why Spinors Are Irreducible if Gamma-Traceless: Explained

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SUMMARY

This discussion centers on the irreducibility of spinors when they are gamma-traceless, specifically in the context of higher spin fields. Participants reference the Rarita-Schwinger equation and the Dirac equation to clarify the relationship between spin-3/2 particles and Dirac spinors. The conversation highlights the distinction between spinor-vector fields and Dirac spinors, emphasizing that the divergence of a spinor-vector field, denoted as ψ^{μ}(x), results in a Dirac spinor. The discussion also critiques existing literature, asserting that many resources fail to adequately explain these concepts.

PREREQUISITES
  • Understanding of spinor-vector fields and their representations
  • Familiarity with the Rarita-Schwinger equation
  • Knowledge of the Dirac equation and its implications for spin-1/2 particles
  • Basic concepts of gamma matrices and their role in quantum field theory
NEXT STEPS
  • Study the Rarita-Schwinger equation in detail to understand its application to higher spin fields
  • Explore the implications of gamma-traceless conditions on spinor irreducibility
  • Review the construction of spin-3/2 theories from foundational principles
  • Investigate the role of divergence in the context of Dirac spinors and their physical interpretations
USEFUL FOR

This discussion is beneficial for theoretical physicists, particularly those specializing in quantum field theory, particle physics, and the mathematical foundations of spinor representations.

filip97
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I read this question

https://physics.stackexchange.com/q...onditions-is-a-vector-spinor-gamma-trace-free . Also I read Sexl and Urbantke book about groups. But I don't understand why spinors is irreducible if these are gamma-tracelees. Also I read many papers about higher spin fields in which doesn't explain and proof gamma traceless(irreducibility condition) of spinors of higher rank. Can any explain this ?
 
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Perhaps if we ping @samalkhaiat , you can get an answer. :) It may very well be the one on the SE website, though.
 
Ok, it is clearer. But why 1/2 component carried with divergence of Dirac spinor ? (This removing ghosts ?)
 
filip97 said:
Ok, it is clearer.
Is it? Then why are you asking this?
But why 1/2 component carried with divergence of Dirac spinor ?
First: \psi^{\mu}(x) is a spinor-vector field. It describes spin-3/2 particle and its anti-particle. It is NOT a Dirac spinor (Dirac spinor field describes spin-1/2 particle and its anti-particle).
Second: The divergence of \psi^{\mu}(x) IS a Dirac spinor because (as I have already explained in the other thread) \partial_{\mu}\psi^{\mu} satisfies the Dirac equation. In other words, the field \psi (x) \equiv \partial_{\mu}\psi^{\mu}(x) represents one of the two spin-1/2 components of the spinor-vector field \psi^{\mu}(x). All of this was explained in the other thread.
(This removing ghosts ?)
Which ghosts are these?
 
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filip97
Can we raising and lowering indices of mwtric spinor with 2-contravariant or 2-covariant with metric tensor ? I think that we can do this with sigma(mu,nu) this write in Sexl Urbantke book of group representation. I was post this question because don't clear ho we contract Dirac equation with gamma(mu). Thanks a lot !
 

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